Intern Report 6.13

Case Presentation by Dr. Sarah Michael

CC: I can’t breathe!

A 21-year-old female is transported to the emergency department after an apparent domestic dispute. On arrival, it is apparent that she has multiple stab wounds to her chest and abdomen. She is alert and oriented but in acute distress. Her blood pressure is 98/64, pulse 112, respirations 32 and oxygen saturation 94% on nonrebreather mask. There is no jugular venous distension. You can appreciate a small degree of tracheal deviation. An eFAST is performed which includes the following findings.

6.13-1

6.13-2

6.13-3

1. The most appropriate next step in the management of this patient is:

A: Needle decompression of the right hemithorax

B: Left-sided chest tube

C: CT of the chest, abdomen and pelvis

D: Emergent transport to OR

2. The patient’s clinical status remains unchanged.  A repeat U/S shows the following:

6.13-4j

Now the most appropriate next step is:

A: Chest tube placement

B: Intubation

C: Finger thoracostomy

D: Chest x-ray

3. Which of the following is true regarding the patient’s belongings?

A: They should be placed in a plastic bag and remain with her.

B: They should be placed in paper bags and offered to the police.

C: If ED staff handles them they lose their forensic value.

D: Blood-soaked items should be placed in biohazard waste.

Answers & Discussion:

1. The answer is A, needle decompression.

The patient in the vignette is in shock and her physical exam is concerning for a  tension pneumothorax with respiratory distress and hypotension. Notably, JVD may be absent in the hypotensive patient. In order to correctly answer the question, you need to be able to interpret the eFAST findings.

An eFAST (extended FAST) exam includes the normal FAST structures as well as the lung at the 3-4 intercostal space on the anterior chest wall. This is the most superior aspect of the chest in a supine patient and the location where you would expect air to accumulate.  You’re given 3 images to interpret.

The first image is of Morrison’s pouch, the most sensitive FAST view for intraperitoneal free fluid. This patient has a renal fat pad that could be mistaken for free fluid. You should be able to appreciate that the structure is lenticular with internal echoes and bounded by the hyperechoic line of the renal capsule.  This is known as the double line sign and is a frequent cause of a false positive FAST examination. Therefore, it is not a reason to rush the patient to the OR. If it’s helpful, think about it as a renal corollary of the pericardial fat pad that can sometimes mimic pericardial effusion.

6.13 ans -1j

The second image shows you a normal M-mode ultrasound of the right lung. You can see the “seashore sign” with an abrupt transition between the chest wall and lung parenchyma at the pleura. It would be imprudent to place a chest tube on the unaffected side.  

6.13 ans-2

The third image shows you the lung point of the left lung, indicating the presence of a pneumothorax. This is the place on the chest wall where the lung transitions from pneumothorax to being against the chest wall. In M-mode, you’d be able to see both the “seashore” and “barcode” signs vary with respiration.  In a setting concerning for tension, needle decompression is the way to go.  Intubating the patient before decompression risks further destabilization.   Fixing a tension pneumothorax may also prevent the need for intubation.

6.13 ans-4

2: The correct answer is A, chest tube placement.

In the trauma patient with persistent respiratory distress and decreased breath sounds after needle decompression, you should consider chest tube placement for presumptive hemothorax per ATLS guidelines. Chest tube placement is certainly indicated given the ultrasound image, which demonstrates a massive hemothorax. There is near complete consolidation of the lung as it floats in a sea of fluid. The M-mode graphic shows the movement of the lung edge with respiratory variation.

6.13-ans 3

The patient may need intubation for respiratory failure (and definitely for her trip to the OR). But intubation before tension is resolved would likely worsen the tension and could be disastrous.  Similarly, tension pneumo- or hemo-thorax is a clinical diagnosis and treatment should not be delayed by imaging.

Thoracotomy in the OR is indicated for patients who have a chest tube output of 1500 cc or greater of blood during the first hour. Given the appearance on ultrasound, more than 1500 cc would be expected. However, the tension should be relieved at once and not delayed by transportation to the OR.

Finger thoracotomy should be considered and is an option if you are uncertain of the diagnosis of hemothorax. In this case the diagnosis is not in doubt and chest tube is required.  A chest tube is also indicated once a decompressive needle thoracostomy is performed.  Furthermore, a hemothorax this large will likely re-accumulate very quickly.

3. The correct answer is B.

The patient is a victim of a violent crime and her clothing, through which she was stabbed, likely contains valuable forensic evidence. Caring for the patient obviously takes priority over the preservation of such evidence, but steps can be taken to maintain evidence integrity so long as they do not delay care. When removing a patient’s clothing, try to avoid cutting through stab or bullet holes and always wear gloves. In some cases, the frequent changing of gloves can help to keep from cross-contaminating evidence.  Even if evidence is collected or handled suboptimally in the provision of care for the patient, it is not worthless and should still be made available to investigators.

After being removed from the patient, clothing should be placed in separate paper bags and given to law enforcement. The paper bags will allow the blood to dry in a way that does not promote the formation of mildew, which can destroy the evidence. Blood soaked items should be placed in separate plastic bags followed by separate paper bags. Law enforcement should be informed that the items are soaked so they can be dried appropriately.

If law enforcement declines the evidence, it should be returned to the patient.

Riviello, edited by Ralph J. (2010). Manual of forensic emergency medicine : a guide for clinicians. Sudbury, Mass.: Jones and Bartlett Publishers. ISBN 978-0-7637-4462-5.

Intern Report 6.12

Case Presentation by Dr. Aditee Jodhani

CC:  I’m vomiting blood

55 year old female with past medical history of HTN, DM, cirrhosis, IVDA and alcohol abuse presents to the ED for hypotension associated with several episodes of hematemesis. The patient states that 3-4 days ago she began having bloody stools and generalized weakness.  She approximates two liquid BMs per day that are mixed blood.  She also describes being nauseated and had 2 episodes of hematemesis over the last 3 days.  Pt denies any symptoms of fever or abdominal pain.

PMH: alcoholism, IVDA, hep C, cirrhosis, anemia, PUD, internal hemorrhoids

PSH:  Last colonoscopy and EGD was 10/23/12 which showed internal hemorrhoids and a large duodenal bulbar ulcer respectively.  IVC filter placed during same admission

Medications: acetaminophen/hydrocodone, docusate, iron, folic acid, bactrim and thiamine but patient has been noncompliant

Allergies: Aspirin

Family History: denies DM and HTN

Social History: Denies smoking, positive for alcohol and heroin use

Physical Exam:

Vitals: P105, BP94/66 T36.2 (oral) R14

Gen: slightly lethargic

Head: Normocephalic, atraumatic

Eyes: Pupils equal, round and reactive to light. No sclera icterus

ENT: Mucous membranes slightly dry. Dry blood seen around her mouth.

Neck: is supple. Trachea midline. No JVD.

Respiratory: Normal respiratory effort. Good breath sounds heard bilaterally.

Cardiovascular: Regular rate and rhythm, S1 and S2 are auscultated, no murmurs, rubs or gallops.  Pulses palpable in the lower extremities

Abdomen: Soft, nontender, nondistended. +BS.  No rebounding or guarding. Was unable to palpate liver edge, no ascites present.

Musculoskeletal: Full range of movement in all extremities.  Cap refill <3 sec in all four extremities.

Skin: Warm and dry. No rashes or lesions.

Neurologic: Alert and orient to person, and time. Cranial nerves II-VII intact. Patient is lethargic, does answer questions, but is slow to respond.  Per sister at bedside, patient is not at baseline.

Labs:

Electrolytes: 142/4.7/110/22/12/1.6 anion gap 10, glucose 89

CBC: 7.9/9.7/30/194

Coag: INR 1.29 PT 13.4 PTT 33

LFTs: AST: 75 ALT: 45 alk P: 141 lipase 269, ammonia 122, albumin 2.0, bilirubin total 1.5, bilirubin direct 1.1

FOBT: positive

EKG: ventricular rate of 100 beats per minute.  Axis is normal.  PR interval is 122 milliseconds.  QRS duration is 72 milliseconds.  QTC is 410 milliseconds.  No acute ST or T-wave abnormalities seen.  There is good R wave progression.  Twelve-lead ECG is interpreted as sinus rhythm with no evidence of acute ST-segment elevation MI.

ED course:

While in the ED the patient had three more bloody bowel movements and one episode of hematemesis. The patient refused NGT placement.  She was given antiemetics, and started on a pantoprazole drip.  She received 1 unit of PRBCs and was given 2 L of fluids. The surgery service was consulted.  Due to patient’s PMH of chronic alcohol abuse there was concern that the hematemesis was caused by esophageal varices.

Questions:

1.) What prophylactic medication is recommended for cirrhotic patients with confirmed varices to prevent bleeding?

a.)Propranolol

b.)Octreotide

c.)Amlodipine

d.)Lactulose

2.)   In addition to a pantoprazole drip, what other medication is important to start in patients with a history of cirrhosis and have an active GI bleed?

a.)Magnesium sulfate

b.) Solumedrol

c.) Octreotide

d.)  Ursodiol

3.)  In the above clinical scenario, what is the patient’s Child’s score and class at admission?

a.)2; class A

b.)8; class B

c.)10; class B

d.)15; class C

 

Discussion & Answers:

1.)A;  Cirrhotic patients with diagnosed esophageal varices should be started on beta blockers, specifically propranolol. Beta blockers reduce the likelihood of acute bleeding as well as ascites, SBP, hepatic encephalopathy and hepatorenal syndrome.  Nonselective beta-blockers prevent bleeding in more than half of patients with medium or large varices.  Along with propranolol patients can also be started on isosorbide mononitrate.  However not all patients respond to pharmacological treatment and other interventions should be considered (discussed below).

Resources: Abraldes, Tarantino, Turnes, Bosch. Hemodynamic response to pharmacological treatment of portal hypertension and long-term prognosis of cirrhosis.  Hepatology. 30 DEC 2003 DOI: 10.1053/jhep.2003.50133

2.)C;  In addition to protonix, an octreotide drip should also be started.  The mechanism of action of octreotide is not completely clear. It is believed to reduce portal pressure and splanchnic blood flow.  Another alternative medication is vasopressin, but is used less frequently due its effect of worsening coronary ischemia.  A new drug similar to vasopressin but with less side effect is terlipressin it is a somatostatin analogue that also acts to reduce portal hypertension through splanchnic vasoconstriction. A study done out of Japan from 2009 showed equal efficacy of terlipressin to octreotide and reduced hospital stay, but there was no clinical improvement.

Resource: Terlipressin vs. Octreotide in Bleeding Esophageal Varices as an Adjuvant Therapy with EBL: A randomized double-blind Placebo-controlled Trial.  The American Journal of Gastroenterology 2009. 104:617-623.

3.)B;  8; class B.  Bilrubin 1.5, albumin 2.0, INR <1.29, physical exam no ascites, mild hepatic encephalopathy -pt not at her baseline per family but can still respond to questioning, ammonia 122.

Measure 1 point 2 points 3 points
Total bilirubin, mg/dl  <2 2-3 >3
Serum albumin, g/dl >3.5 2.8-3.5 <2.8
PT INR <1.7 1.71-2.30 > 2.30
Ascites None Mild Moderate to Severe
Hepatic encephalopathy None Grade I-II (or suppressed with medication) Grade III-IV (or refractory)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Points Class One year survival Two year survival
5-6 A 100% 85%
7-9 B 81% 57%
10-15 C 45% 35%
       

 

 

 

 

6.12-2

Pathophysiology of varices: Figure 1

Hepatic cirrhosis causes increased resistance and thus increased pressure (portal hypertension) in the portal vein that leads to backup of blood in the tributaries, (eg inferior mesenteric vein, periumbilical veins, gastroesophageal veins, and superior mesenteric vein). The gastroesophageal vessels are located in an area with little supporting tissue and easily become distended and more likely to bleed.  In the setting of worsening liver failure and associated coagulopathy, bleeding is significant risk in these patients.

Presentation:

Some common signs on physical exam consistent with portal hypertension are gynecomastia, caput medusae, ascities, and bilateral lower extremity swelling.

6.12-3

Figure 2

Unfortunately esophageal varices cannot be identified on physical exam; they are diagnosed by endoscopy.  Over 70% of cirrhotic patients with UGI bleeding is thought to be due to esophageal varices. Therefore, all cirrhotic patients with an UGI bleed should be considered variceal bleeders until proven otherwise.  These patients have a mortality of 16% at presentation. Classically, patients with varices present with melana or hematochezia as well as hematemesis.  Initial vital signs are prognostic.  Mortality approaches 30% in patients with signs of shock or their SBP is <100mmHg or HR is >100bpm at presentation.

Workup:  Addressing the ABCs is critical.  Early intubation is recommended in order to decrease aspiration and facilitate optimal endoscopy, especially in patients with decreased mental status caused by hepatic encephalopathy. These patients need good intravenous access, 2- large bore IVs or cordis catheter.

In addition to routine labs, coagulation studies are helpful in determining whether or not the patient has liver disease-induced coagulopathy.  It is also recommended to obtain, blood cultures, troponin and lactic acid.  A hemoglobin less than 10g/dl is associated with a poorer prognosis in patients.  It is important to obtain an ECG.  One study indicated that over 50% of patients admitted to the ICU for GI hemorrhage had evidence of cardiac injury. A nasogastric tube should be placed. There is unfounded concern that placing an NG tube will lead to increased bleeding in patients with varices.  NGT placement is important to prevent the risk of aspiration and also can be used to perform a NGT lavage to help determine if the bleed is proximal to the duodenum and if it is still active.

Although lavage is helpful for identifying the location of the bleed, a negative lavage cannot rule out a GI bleed. Do not use guaiac cards, to test aspirate for blood, they are inaccurate.

Patient should be transfused with PRBCs to keep hemoglobin above 8g/dL.  In coagulopathic patients, fresh frozen plasma and platelets can be transfused.  Over-transfusion can lead to worsening portal hypertension and does not reliably correct coagulopathy. FFP should be transfused when there is an elevated PT and platelets should only be transfused at levels are below <50,000.  Clinicians should monitor for the development of DIC in patients undergoing massive transfusion.

Patients with variceal hemorrhage should be started on several pharmacologic therapies early in the ED course.  Pantoprazole should be bolused at 80mg and then infused at 8mg/h. Octreotide drip should be bolused at 50 micrograms then infused at 25-50micrograms/hr for 2-5 days.

Patients can also be started on erythromycin 200mg IV to prepare for endoscopy.  Erythromycin accelerates gastric emptying and reduces need for repeat endoscopy.  Antibiotics norfloxacin 400mg bid or ceftriaxone 1g/d for 5-7 days should also be started in the ED.  Release of bacterial endotoxins cause vasodilation and worsens liver function. Early treatments help to reduce early rebleeding.

These patients need early consult to a Gastroenterologist and interventional radiologist for potential TIPS procedure.  TIPS is also commonly used as a prophylactic procedure for esophageal varices.  It is associated with reduced risk of rebleed and reduced mortality.  However, TIPS as a salvage procedure increases the risk of hepatic encephalopathy.

Endoscopic band ligation (EBL)and sclerotherapy are the most frequently used treatments for acute hemorrhage, however EBL is thought to be superior.

Salvage procedures:

Balloon tamponade is used for actively exsanguinating patients using a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube (figure 3).  There is a high complication rate associated with the procedure, including aspiration pneumonia, airway obstruction, and esophageal perforation.  Recombinant factor VIIa can be used as an adjunct therapy.  Some studies show no improved control of bleeding or prevention of rebleeding, but there is an improvement in 6-week mortality.

6.12-4

Figure 3.

Patient’s Course:  The patient was admitted to the MICU. In the MICU, a cordis catheter and triple lumen central line were placed. Blood and vasopressors (norepinephrine) were administered.  Her hemoglobin was monitored Q6.  She had 2 more episodes of hematemesis, which led to endotracheally intubation and insertion of a NG tube.  The following morning she developed worsening hematochezia and a rectal tube was placed that collected continuous bright red blood. The massive transfusion protocol was initiated and repeat endoscopy showed varices.  A TIPS procedure was performed. Despite the TIPS procedure she continued to have rectal bleeding.  Lactulose was administered. A tagged RBC study was preformed that also revealed a LGI bleed.  The location could not be isolated by angiography. The patient developed DIC and multiple electrolyte abnormalities.  Family was informed of the poor prognosis and subsequently agreed to place the patient in palliative care. The patient was transferred to the floor and eventually received a trach and PEG.  She was then moved to hospice in early January. She returned back to the hospital for malnutrition was treated and discharged back to the hospice.

 

References:

1.)Hartman, Aldeen.  Focus On: Variceal Hemorrhage www.acep.org/Content.aspx?id=80193, ACEP news Feb 2011.

2.)Bosch, Abraldes, Berzigotti, Garcia-Pagen.  Portal Hypertension and Gastrointestinal Bleeding. Seminars in Liver Disease. Vol 28, No 1 2008.

3.)Portal Hypertension. http://hopkins-gi.org/GDL_Disease.aspx?CurrentUDV=31&GDL_Disease_ID=E19DBE4A-EE02-4BDE-9FF9-A8371834DE4A&GDL_DC_ID=9AA60584-3607-4D15-A459-BD3F67A3A4A7. Accessed Feb 20, 2013.

4.)Tintinalli, Judith. Upper GI Bleeding. Tintinalli’s Emergency Medicine A Comprehensive Study Guide 7th Edition.  P543-545, 2011.

 

Intern Report 6.11

Case Presentation by Dr. Erin Ge

Chief complaint:

Seizure

History of present illness:

A 1 year old male presented to the ED with fever.  The previous night, his parents noticed that he felt warm to the touch.  He had been acting more tired than usual throughout the previous day, but was otherwise asymptomatic. While in the waiting room, the boy fell to the ground, became unresponsive and began to exhibit jerking motions of his arms and legs.  The jerking motions lasted for approximately 3 minutes and then ceased. The child had no history of seizures or any other major medical problems and he was developmentally normal.  There was no reported family history of seizures.

Review of Systems:

As stated in the HPI. Remaining ROS negative.

History:

Past Medical History:  None.

Past Surgical History:  None.

Medications:  None.

Allergies:  None.

Family History:  DM, no history of seizures, no history of childhood or inherited illnesses

Birth History:

Full-term, normal delivery

Birth weight: 6lb15ozs

Complications: neonatal jaundice which resolved with phototherapy, no other complications

Immunizations:

Up-to-date. No flu vaccine.

Initial Physical Exam:

General: Well nourished, unarousable male

Vitals:  T 39.8 rectal, HR 70, RR 32, BP 97/50, O2 Sat 100%, Wt 10kg

Head:  Normocephalic, atraumatic.

Eyes: PERRL, Normal conjunctiva

ENT: TM’s normal.  Mild rhinorrhea.  MMM. No evidence of tonsilar enlargement, edema or exudate.

Neck:  No nuchal rigidity. No cervical LAD.

Respiratory:  Clear to auscultation bilaterally. Respirations are nonlabored. Equal chest expansion bilaterally.

CVS:  RRR. S1, S2 normal.  No murmur.

Abdomen:  Soft, nondistended, nontender.  No palpable masses.  Bowel sounds normoactive.

Skin: Warm to the touch. No rashes.

Musculoskeletal: No obvious deformities.  Moving all extremities equally.

Neurologic: Not arousable, localizes physical stimuli, PERRL, normal deep tendon reflexes, normal tone

Repeat Physical Exam after 60 minutes

General: Awake, interactive male

Vitals:  T 37.6 rectal, HR 82, O2 Sat 100%

Neurologic: Alert, makes appropriate eye contact, interacting playfully with parents, PERRL, normal deep tendon reflexes, normal tone

Labs:

CBC: WBC 6.8   Hgb 10.8   Platelets 567

BMP: Na 133   K 144   Chloride 97   CO2 19   Glucose 104   BUN 14   Creatinine .4

Calcium 9.6    Magnesium 2.1  Phosphorus 5.4

Influenza A  -    Influenza B +   RSV –

Blood culture: No growth

Questions:

1)    Which of the following is true about the prognosis of a child with a first time simple febrile seizure?

a) Antiepileptic medications should be used to prevent further seizures

b) Likelihood of developing epilepsy is doubled

c) Over 75% of children under 12 months at time of first seizure will have another febrile seizure

d) Acetaminophen and ibuprofen use is effective in preventing recurrent febrile seizure episodes

2)    Which of the following patients who presented with fever and seizure should an LP be considered for?

a) 1 year old male who was diagnosed with acute otitis media one week ago and currently taking amoxicillin

b) 4 year old female who has been complaining of headache and asks for the lights to be turned off in the exam room

c) 10 month old male who has not been seen by a physician since being discharged after birth

d) b and c

e) all of the above

3)  Treatment of febrile status epilepticus includes which of the following?

a) Phenobarbital IV 15-18mg/kg loading dose, 5mg/kg repeat dose

b) Phenytoin IM 15-18mg/kg loading dose

C) All of the above

d) None of the above. Febrile seizures do not progress to status

 

Discussion & Answers

Question answers

1)  The answer is b.  Patients who have had febrile seizures have approximately a 2% incidence of epilepsy as adults which is twice the general population incidence of about 1%.

Answer a is incorrect. Although antiepileptic medications have actually been shown to decrease reoccurrence of febrile seizure activity in patients with a history of febrile seizures, they are typically not initiated due to the risk of medication effects outweighing the benefits of preventing a typically self limited seizure.  In a subset of patients who have increased risk for complications from seizures, however, these may be considered.

Answer c is incorrect. Having one simple febrile seizure does increase the risk of having another and increases it even more so the younger the patient is at time of initial seizure.  The risk, however is around 50% for patients younger than 12 months at first seizure and about 33% for patients older than 12 months.

Answer d is also incorrect.  Although use of ibuprofen and acetaminophen is commonly used to help break a febrile seizure, these medications have not been shown to have any effect on preventing seizure activity.

 

2)  The answer is e.  All of the described patients should raise some concern for a CNS infection.  The patient described in a is currently on antibiotics which can mask the presenting symptoms of a meningeal infection.  While clearly not an indication for an LP, extra consideration should be given to possible LP in this patient.  The patient described in b has other concerning neurological symptoms, headache and photophobia, which may be indicative of meningeal irritation.  The patient in c has not received proper vaccinations and patients without known immunization against Haemophilus influenzae b and Streptococcus pneumoniae are at increased risk for meningitis.  Once again, none of these are indications for LP, but they should increase your suspicion for an occult infection.

 

3)  The answer is a.  Status from febrile seizure should be treated in the same manner as status from any etiology.  First line treatments are benzodiazepines and if those fail to break the seizure phenobarbital can be given as a second line treatment.

Answer b is incorrect.  Although phenytoin is a second line treatment for status, it should not be given IM due to its poor absorption via this route and its tendency to cause hemorrhagic necrosis at the injection site.

Answer c is incorrect because answer b is incorrect as stated above.

Answer d is incorrect.  Although rare, febrile seizures can progress to status epilecticus.

 

Febrile Seizures

This patient presented with a brief, generalized seizure associated with fever which was followed by a short postictal state and then complete neurologic recovery.  This presentation in a previously neurologically normal patient between the ages of 6 months and 6 years is characteristic of a simple febrile seizure.  Febrile seizures are classified as “simple” when the seizure activity is generalized, lasts for less than 15 minutes and only occurs once within a 24 hour period.  Seizures are considered complex if they do not follow any one of the classifications of simple febrile seizures (ie seizures are focal, last longer than 15 minutes or occur more than once in a 24 hour period).  Febrile seizures typically will occur during the first day of illness and are often associated with higher elevations in temperature and when temperatures increase or decrease rapidly.

Febrile seizures are common and may occur in up to 5% of children.  They are typically benign in nature.  A small number of patients who present with complex febrile seizures do have underlying pathology, so clinicians should be more wary with a complex presentation.  In general, however, patients do not have any long term sequelae due to these seizures.  As previously discussed in the question answers, there is a greater risk of epilepsy in adulthood for patients who had febrile seizures, but it is still only seen in about 2% of this population.  Also as previously discussed, febrile seizures do often recur and while administration of antiepileptics can decrease recurrences, the risks associated with use of these medications is viewed as greater than the risk posed by the seizures in most children.  Factors shown to correlate with increased recurrence risk include: younger age at first seizure, first degree relative with history of febrile seizures, lower degree of fever in the ED and brief duration between onset of fever and seizure activity.

The treatment of febrile seizures is similar to that of any seizing patient.  The initial concern is to stop the seizure activity.  While febrile seizures usually are self limited in nature, they can also persist and rarely progress to status epilepticus.  First line treatment is administration of benzodiazepines, typically lorazepam or diazepam.  Preferred route is IV, but as IV access can be difficult in a seizing patient both lorazepam and diazepam are available and effective via rectal administration.  Midazolam has also been shown to be effective when administered intramuscularly.  If repeated doses of benzodiazapines do not break the seizure, the second line agents are phenytoin and phenobarbital.  As previously discussed, phenytoin should not be used intramuscularly due it poor absorption and tissue necrosis.  It should also not be administered at a rate faster than 1mg/kg/min as it is prepared with propylene glycol which can cause cardiac complications when infused at a higher rate.  Use of Fosphenytoin circumvents both these issues, but is significantly more costly.  Simultaneous reduction of fever is appropriate for patients.  Rectal acetaminophen and ibuprofen can be administered.

Patients diagnosed with simple febrile seizures typically do not require admission or further follow up as long as they have shown full neurologic recovery and the source of the fever does not require more intensive treatment.

There should be an appropriate investigation for etiologies of fever in children that would be treated i.e. pneumonia, otitis media, urinary tract infection…etc.

The diagnosis of febrile seizure should only be given when other causes for seizure have been ruled out either from the patient’s clinical presentation or further lab and/or imaging studies.  Patients who raise any suspicion for meningitis should receive steroids, antibiotic therapy, antivirals, and further work up including a lumbar puncture.  Any patient with signs of neurologic impairment prior to seizure activity or incomplete neurological recovery after seizure requires further workup.

What Happened

The patient presented in the case was brought back to the pod actively seizing since at that time there were no open spots in resuscitation.  He was administered rectal acetaminophen and was about to be given a dose of lorazepam when his seizure activity ceased.  As stated in the discussion, his history and clinical presentation did not seem to indicate an underlying pathology for his seizures other than the fever, so we chose to perform basic lab studies and observe him.  His labs results were within normal limits with the exception of testing positive for flu, as shown, and his neurological state upon re-evaluation was completely normal.  Our final impression was that this child had a simple febrile seizure secondary to fever caused by the influenza virus.  Our plan had been to discharge him home, but upon discussion we the family over concerns that the child may seize again, we did decide to admit him to observation overnight.  He was started on a course of oseltamavir and administered ibuprofen and acetaminophen for fever control.  Overnight, he did not have any further seizure activity.  He was discharged home the next morning and was given instructions to follow up in the neurology clinic.

Intern Report 6.10

Case Presentation by Dr. Sean Michael

Chief Complaint: “my stomach is killing me”

History of Present Illness :

57-year-old man with history of COPD and remote history of breast and testicular cancer who presents to the ED approximately 72 hours after an alleged assault in which he was struck with a bat multiple times in the left flank. He sought care on the day of the assault and had a negative urinalysis, chest x-ray, and plain films of the right hand and wrist and T- and L-spine. He reported that his pain had improved considerably while in the ED, and he was discharged home.

He returns today complaining of severe epigastric and left flank pain as well as multiple episodes of nausea and vomiting that began when he woke up this morning. He denies trauma in the interim and has otherwise been well with no recent illness, fever, chills, diarrhea, dysuria, or hematuria. His flank pain radiates to the left groin and is “sharp” and severe. It has been worsening since the onset this morning. He’s had no relief with ibuprofen 800 mg and Norco, which he was prescribed during his last ED visit.

Review of Systems : Negative except per HPI

Medications: albuterol, Norco, ibuprofen.

Medical history: remote history of breast cancer, remote history of testicular cancer, COPD

Surgical history: bilateral mastectomy (remote)

Social history: Denies alcohol use, current tobacco use, and illicit drug use

Physical Examination

Vital signs:  T 35.9, BP 143/99, HR 85, RR 18, SpO2 99% on room air, BMI 17.8

General:  Alert, anxious, diaphoretic. Ill-appearing and looks rather uncomfortable.

Skin:  Normal color for ethnicity.  Cool, diaphoretic.

Head:  Atraumatic

Neck:  Normal active ROM.  No tenderness, step-off, or deformity.  No JVD.

Eye:  PERRL, EOMI. Normal conjunctiva.

ENT:  Dry oral mucosa

Cardiovascular:  Regular rate and rhythm.  Normal S1 and S2. No murmur.  No edema.  Radial pulses strong and symmetric. Extremities well-perfused.

Respiratory:  Lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally.  Respirations are non-labored. Symmetrical chest wall expansion.

Chest wall:  No tenderness, ecchymosis, deformity, or other evidence of trauma.

Abdomen:  Significant voluntary guarding. Upon focused relaxation, he has significant epigastric and left upper quadrant tenderness as well as left CVA tenderness. He has pain referred to the epigastrium upon palpation elsewhere in the abdomen. He has intense pain with gentle back and forth movement of the abdomen and with tapping on his heels.

Musculoskeletal:  Moving all extremities spontaneously, no deformity or evidence of trauma

Neurological:  Alert and oriented to person, place, time, and situation.  No focal neurological deficit observed.  Face symmetric. Grossly normal sensation, motor function, and speech.

 

IV access was established, and labs were sent including CBC, chemistries, coags, type and screen, LFTs, amylase, lipase, serum alcohol, UDS. He was bolused with IV normal saline and given IV morphine for pain control.

12-Lead EKG:

6.10 ECG

Chest X-Ray (upright): Old right-sided rib fractures but no acute cardiopulmonary abnormality. Mild hyperinflation. No evidence of pneumoperitoneum.

Bedside FAST exam was performed.

US-LUQ

Questions:

1. Based on the case information provided and this ultrasound image of the patient’s left upper quadrant, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Urgent consultation to urology

B. Urgent consultation to general surgery

C. CT abdomen/pelvis with PO and IV contrast

D. Urinalysis with microscopic exam

2. After administration of 2 liters of IV normal saline and 0.1 mg/kg morphine IV, the patient becomes hypotensive and complains of lightheadedness. Which of the following is the most appropriate next therapy?

A. IV crystalloid

B. Blood products

C. Naloxone

D. Diphenhydramine

 3. For which of the following patients is bedside FAST exam most appropriate and clinically helpful?

A. 40 year-old woman ejected from her motorcycle after a collision, HR 94 and BP 142/89

B. 23 year-old man with a gunshot wound to the right upper quadrant, HR 128 and BP 94/56

C. 28 year-old woman involved in a motor vehicle collision who has a “seat belt sign,” HR 92 and BP 132/78

D. 37 year-old male pedestrian struck by a vehicle at 30 mph, HR 112 and BP 102/60

 

Answers:

  1. B
  2. B
  3. D

 

Course in the ED:

In this case, bedside FAST exam was actually the first imaging obtained (17 minutes before the portable chest x-ray).

RUQ (positive for free fluid in the hepatorenal space and perihepatic areas):

US-RUQ

 

Suprapubic-transverse (fluid in the lumen of the bladder with a significant amount of free fluid in the pelvis):

US-PelvisTrans

 

Suprapubic-sagittal (same as above):

US-PelvisSag

The subxyphoid view was negative for pericardial effusion and is not shown.

The LUQ view (shown in question 1) was positive for a small amount of free fluid in the splenorenal space and much more free fluid in the perisplenic area. An urgent consultation was placed to general surgery (answer B). The patient was also crossmatched for 4 units of packed red blood cells and consented for transfusion, if necessary. After evaluating the patient, the surgery resident requested that we obtain a stat CT of the abdomen and pelvis with IV contrast. The patient remained hemodynamically stable and went to CT uneventfully.

Axial image through the mid-spleen:

Axialj

Sagittal image through the spleen and kidneys:

Coronalj

 

The CT demonstrated a grade 3 splenic laceration with significant hemoperitoneum and a large subcapsular hematoma, likely with a small amount of active extravasation.

While surgery was staffing the patient, the patient began having worsening discomfort and became more agitated. He became hypotensive to the mid-70s systolic with heart rate 110-115 and respiratory rate 30. At this point, the patient had already received at least two liters of crystalloid, and he was transfused with two units of packed red blood cells (question 2, answer B). Central venous access was obtained, and the patient was taken emergently to the operating room by general surgery.

He underwent exploratory laparotomy and was found to have a grade 4 splenic rupture with 3000 mL of blood in the abdomen and a grade 1 small bowel mesenteric hematoma in the jejunum. He received further pRBC transfusions in the OR, as well as Cell Saver autologous transfusion. He underwent splenectomy and was transferred to the SICU. His postoperative course was uneventful, and he was discharged home on post-operative day #4.

 

Discussion: imaging in blunt abdominal trauma

Emergency physicians are confronted with a broad spectrum of presentations of abdominal trauma, both blunt and penetrating. We also have at our disposal a variety of imaging options to evaluate and diagnose these injuries. As with any diagnostic test, however, it is important to understand the performance characteristics in order to appropriately select the right test in a given clinical situation.

Ultrasound:

Focused Abdominal Sonography for Trauma (FAST) is commonly performed as part of the assessment of all major trauma patients, but we sometimes rely on the result as being “black and white” (no pun intended) without fully understanding how to use the exam to inform the clinical picture. Conversely, some physicians discount the utility of ultrasound in the trauma patient altogether.

FAST is a triage tool, not a screening test. In other words, a negative FAST exam is not adequately sensitive to rule out intraperitoneal free fluid (pooled sensitivity 82%; -LR 0.26, 95% CI 0.19-0.34)(6). A positive FAST exam, however, is more accurate than any history or physical examination finding in diagnosing intra-abdominal injury (+LR 30, 95% CI, 20-46)(6). Thus, it is most clinically useful to rule-in injury, rather than to rule it out.

Evidence-based clinical practice guidelines from the American College of Emergency Physicians (ACEP), the Eastern Association for the Surgery of Trauma (EAST), and the American College of Radiology (ACR) are in agreement that FAST is the imaging modality of choice for hemodynamically unstable adult blunt abdominal trauma patients (1,2,4). In the setting of hemodynamic instability, a positive FAST convincingly rules-in intra-abdominal injury requiring operative intervention (1,2,4,5,6,7). A negative FAST, however, does not rule-out an abdominal injury.

Interesting Sidebar (compiled from reference 6):

Finding

Likelihood Ratio for Intra-abdominal Injury (95% CI)

Positive FAST 30 (20-46)
Base deficit less than -6 mEq/L 18 (11-30)
Presence of seat belt sign LR range 5.6-9.9
Rebound tenderness 6.5 (1.8-24)
Hypotension 5.2 ( 3.5-7.5)
Abdominal distention 3.8 (1.9-7.6)
Abdominal guarding 3.7 (2.3-5.9)
Absence of tenderness to palpation 0.61 (0.46-0.80)
Negative FAST 0.26 (0.19-0.34)

In the hemodynamically stable patient, ultrasound still provides useful information, but it’s clinical application is different. Because a positive FAST rules-in intra-abdominal injury, further evaluation is required to determine whether the stable patient requires operative intervention. In one prospective trial, the use of FAST in these patients reduced time-to-surgery by 109 minutes (64% reduction) and also reduced hospital length of stay, complications, and cost (5). Stable patients with a positive FAST should undergo CT (1,4). Depending on the pre-test probability of intra-abdominal injury, stable patients with a negative FAST may be candidates for observation, rather than immediate CT (4). The use of ultrasound for the evaluation of stable patients with blunt abdominal trauma has been shown to decrease CT utilization without deleterious effects on patient outcomes (5).

Of the patients described in question 3, the patient with unstable vital signs and blunt trauma (answer B) is most likely to benefit from FAST. There is a role for FAST in the stable blunt trauma patients (answers A and C), but less so than for the unstable patient. The hemodynamically unstable patient with penetrating abdominal trauma (answer D) requires emergent operative intervention, and FAST is very unlikely to add meaningful information (3,7).

CT:

The same authorities described above also agree that there is rarely a role for CT in the unstable trauma patient (1,2,4). For the stable patient, the preferred imaging modality is CT of the abdomen and pelvis with IV contrast, which enables detection of active bleeding (1,2,4,6). The American College of Radiology makes it clear that “CT evaluation of the abdomen and pelvis for blunt trauma does not require the use of oral contrast” (1). ACEP makes a level B recommendation that “oral contrast is not required in the diagnostic imaging for evaluation of blunt abdominal trauma” (question 1, answer C)(2). This includes the initial scan for patients suspected of having bowel injury (2).

CT has the advantage of better defining organ injury and identifying patients who may be candidates for nonoperative management of solid organ injuries (1). This is part of the rationale for obtaining a CT in stable patients with a positive FAST. It is possible to have intraperitoneal free fluid as a result of an injury that can be managed more conservatively. In addition, CT has the ability to visualize the retroperitoneum and vertebral column (1). While it is much more sensitive for solid organ injury than ultrasound, CT is not sufficiently sensitive to rule out some pancreatic, diaphragmatic, bowel, and mesenteric injuries (1). Therefore, patients with suspicion of intra-abdominal injury but negative CT should be observed for clinical changes that may suggest an occult injury (4).

 

Summary:

  • No imaging test is sufficiently sensitive to exclude clinically meaningful intra-abdominal injury in the setting of blunt abdominal trauma.
  • FAST is most useful when it is positive in a hemodynamically unstable blunt trauma patient.

 

References:

  1. American College of Radiology. “ACR Appropriateness Criteria: Blunt Abdominal Trauma.” (http://www.acr.org/~/media/ACR/Documents/AppCriteria/Diagnostic/BluntAbdominalTrauma.pdf). Accessed February 3, 2013.
  2. Diercks DB, Mehrotra A, Nazarian DJ, et al. Clinical policy: critical issues in the evaluation of adult patients presenting to the emergency department with acute blunt abdominal trauma. Ann Emerg Med. 2011;57(4):387–404.
  3. Como JJ, Bokhari F, Chiu WC, et al. Practice management guidelines for selective nonoperative management of penetrating abdominal trauma. J Trauma. 2010;68(3):721–733.
  4. Hoff WS, Holevar M, Nagy KK, et al. Practice management guidelines for the evaluation of blunt abdominal trauma: the East practice management guidelines work group. J Trauma. 2002;53(3):602–615.
  5. Melniker LA, Leibner E, McKenney MG, Lopez P, Briggs WM, Mancuso CA. Randomized controlled clinical trial of point-of-care, limited ultrasonography for trauma in the emergency department: the first sonography outcomes assessment program trial. Ann Emerg Med. 2006;48(3):227–235.
  6. Nishijima DKD, Simel DLD, Wisner DHD, Holmes JFJ. Does this adult patient have a blunt intra-abdominal injury? JAMA. 2012;307(14):1517–1527.
  7. Offner P. “Penetrating Abdominal Trauma Treatment & Management.” eMedicine website. (http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/2036859-overview). Accessed February 3, 2013.

Intern Report 6.9

Case Presentation by Dr. Eugene Rozen

CC:

Suicide attempt by pill ingestion

HPI

History is provided by the patient and her parents.

This is a 15-year-old female that arrived via ambulance to the emergency department at Children’s Hospital of Michigan 2½  hours after intentionally ingesting an unknown quantity of aspirin and acetaminophen in a suicide attempt. She denies taking any other pills of any kind. She denies having ingested any alcohol or recreational drug. At presentation she is complaining of abdominal discomfort with nausea, and has had several episodes of non-bloody, non-bilious vomiting. She denies headache, dizziness, alterations in vision, tinnitus, LOC, dyspnea, chest pain, or palpitations.

ROS

General: Malaise

Neurologic: No dizziness or headaches

HEENT: No changes in vision or tinnitus

Respiratory: No dyspnea

Cardiovascular: No chest pain or palpitations

Gastrointestinal: Negative except as stated in HPI

Musculoskeletal: No weakness, no trauma

Genitourinary: No dysuria, no hematuria

Integumentary: No rashes

Psychiatric: Initially wanted to commit suicide but presently denies suicidal ideation and regrets what she has done

Physical Exam

Vitals: T 36.5ºC, HR 108, RR 24, BP 109/80, O­2 Sat 100% ORA

General: In NAD on stretcher.

Head: Normocephalic, atraumatic

Eyes: PERRL 5mm, Non-icteric, non-injected, EOMI

ENT: TM intact, No rhinorrhea, no nasal flaring, no pharyngeal erythema

Respiratory: Tachypneic with clear, bilateral air entry and no retractions

Cardiovascular: Tachycardic. Regular rhythm, S1, S2 with no murmur.  Radial and pedal pulses are strong and symmetric

Abdomen: Soft, non-tender, non-distended. BS normal in 4 quadrants.

Musculoskeletal: Full passive range of motion in all joints. No tenderness or swelling.

Neurologic: No focal deficits, cranial nerves intact.

Psych: Awake, alert and interactive.

Ancillary Studies

APAP @ 4 hours: 40

ASA @ 4 hours: 55 mg/dL

UDS: Negative except APAP, aspirin

ABG: pH 7.43, pCO2 27.6, Bicarb 19.1, pO2 100 (RA)

CBC: w 18.5 (85%N, 10%L 5%M); h/h 13.4/39.4; p 340

BMP:

136

103

11

108

4.3

18

0.72

ALT 65, AST 45

UA: Clear, Yellow, pH 6.0, SG 1.023, Blood 1+, Bac 2+, RBC 5-10, otherwise normal

UhCG: negative

ECG: Sinus tachycardia, otherwise normal

CXR: No acute cardiopulmonary process

Questions:

1. Which of the following is most representative of an ABG in a patient with moderate ASA toxicity?

a)  pH 7.34 pCO2 33 HCO3 16

b)  pH 7.38 pCO2 30 HCO3 20

c)  pH 7.32 pCO2 52 HCO3 27

d)  pH 7.29 pCO2 52 HCO3 16

2. Which of the following is an absolute indication for hemodialysis in acute ASA toxicity?

a)  pH >7.45 on ABG

b)  Salicylate level of 65mg/dL

c)  Hyperventilation

d)  New crackles on lung auscultation

3. Which of  the following  is true regarding acute and chronic salicylate ingestion?

a)  Chronic ingestion carries a significantly lower mortality than acute ingestion

b)  Hemodialysis is indicated at a higher ASA level in chronic ingestion than in acute ingestion

c)  ASA toxicity may present in a nearly therapeutic level of ASA in chronic ingestions

d)  Chronic aspirin ingestion is common in children

Answers

1. B

The metabolic manifestations of ASA ingestion are mixed metabolic acidosis and respiratory alkalosis. Although they reciprocate, they are actually independent processes. Answer choice B shows a primary metabolic acidosis. When compensation is calculated (either by Winter’s formula, HCO3+15, or the comparing the pCO2 and after-decimal digits of the pH) this option shows a superimposed respiratory alkalosis. Option A is incompletely compensated metabolic acidosis, Option C is respiratory acidosis and Option D is mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis.

2. D

Hemodialysis is a therapeutic measure taken either in the presence of symptoms indicating severe toxicity or in patients who have failed other treatments. The absolute indications in acute toxicity are a salicylate level >75mg/dL, pulmonary edema, central nervous system symptoms, renal failure, severe acidosis and increasing salicylate levels despite other treatments.

An alkalotic pH may be from bicarbonate therapy or from hyperventilation, but in either event it is likely a good sign, as severe toxicity is associated with acidosis. Hyperventilation is a symptom seen in mild toxicity that can be treated with more conservative therapy. In chronic salicylate toxicity, a serum level >50mg/dL is an absolute indication for hemodialysis.

3. C

Even in acute ingestion, ASA levels do not actually correlate with severity of disease and toxicity may persist at nearly therapeutic levels. Chronic toxicity may be difficult to identify because its symptoms mimic cardiopulmonary conditions, there may not be a history of ingestion and serum levels may even be within normal levels.

Chronic ingestion has a 25% mortality compared to 1% with acute. Hemodialysis is indicated at 50mg/dL in chronic ingestion, compared to 100mg/dL for acute. Before the association was made between Reye’s syndrome and aspirin, children would actually commonly present with chronic ingestion toxicity when treated for fevers or colds. This would be a self-propagating cycle since the symptoms of ASA toxicity may resemble the conditions the aspirin was meant to treat. These days, young children do not commonly receive ASA for fevers/viral syndromes and their presentations are usually due to acute ingestions.

Discussion

Aspirin overdose is a physiology-heavy topic. The patient described in the case did not need the level of intervention that will be discussed below, but I realized during that shift and in researching this topic that she could have been critically ill and I would have been unprepared to treat her properly. I’ve made this discussion rather dense in the way of basic science, but I think that an understanding of the pathophysiology in this case makes the clinical portion logical and largely self-evident.

Salicylism

Salicylates are derived from the bark of trees from the genus Salix (as in salicylate) and Spiraea (as in aspirin) and have been used for millennia to treat pain, fevers, and inflammation. Near the end of the 19th century, the Friedrich Bayer Dye company developed a chemical synthesis for acetylsalicylic acid from Spiraea bark extracts by a reaction similar to the one for converting morphine into heroin (a product developed by the same company). Bayer AG, as it is now known, patented acetylsalicylic acid as Aspirin and began selling it in 1899. It’s other wonder drug, Heroin, continues to sell like hotcakes.

Mechanism of Toxicity

The pharmacological mechanism of acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) is irreversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase 1 and 2 (blocking the synthesis of prostaglandins, prostacyclins and thromboxanes), disruption of the kallikrein-kinin system (inhibiting polymorphonucleocyte chemotaxis and granulocyte adherence to damaged endothelium), and inhibition of interleukin-1 (a macrophage-derived mediator that causes pyrexia). Together these functions, primarily its effects on prostaglandins and thromboxanes, serve to decrease pain, fever, inflammation and thrombosis.

 6.9-0

At low doses, the inhibition of these physiologic functions causes ASA’s common adverse effects, erosive gastritis, GI bleeding, and impaired hemostasis. At higher levels, ASA can interfere with cellular respiration, which is the principal method by which it induces toxicity, referred to as Salicylism.

6.9-1

Within the mitochondria, a proton gradient created by the tricarboxylic acid cycle and the electron transport chain between the intermembrane space and the mitochondrial matrix powers ATP synthesis (figure 1), this is called oxidative phosphorylation. Aspirin interferes with this cycle by buffering and transporting the protons across this membrane, thereby decreasing the potential of the gradient. When this happens, the reactions of the TCA cycle and the ETC are rendered futile, since a lesser amount of ATP is produced. This activates alternative pathways for ATP generation: anaerobic glycolysis and fatty acid oxidation. The upregulation of these two processes induces lactic acidemia and the formation of ketone bodies, respectively. The relative inefficiency of anaerobic glycolysis, which creates approximately 2 ATP molecules per glucose compared to aerobic cellular respiration, which creates approximately 32 ATP molecules per glucose, may deplete glucose stores, resulting in clinical hypoglycemia. Aspirin at high concentrations or prolonged exposure can also induce apoptosis via increased membrane permeability of mitochondria, but this is a complex process and less relevant for clinical medicine.

ASA’s toxic manifestations are dose dependent and begin in the hair cell of the ear. ASA, possibly through a mechanism similar to its effect on mitochondria, can affect the voltage-dependent membrane capacitance of outer hair cells. Through mechanisms that are beyond the scope of this discussion, tinnitus and reversible hearing loss result. These are often present in acute aspirin toxicity, but are also features of chronic ASA use. With chronic toxicity, ASA may also induce the synthesis of prestin, a membrane protein that alters the piezoelectric qualities of the hair cells, leading to hearing deficits.

At slightly higher doses, ASA begins to affect the brainstem. Most sources  state that this is due to “direct stimulation” of the respiratory center in the medulla. The putative mechanism is that the locally diminished ATP and resulting acidic environment stimulates tachypnea, as would hypoxia and hypercarbia. The result of the tachypnea is a respiratory alkalosis and one of the early objective findings in these patients. The renal response to respiratory alkalosis is elimination of bicarbonate which complicates the toxicity at higher levels.

At these higher levels, the effect on the mitochondria can become systemic with accumulation of lactic acid and ketone bodies. The renal elimination of bicarbonate as a compensatory response to the primary respiratory alkalosis causes a decrease in the acid-buffering ability of the blood. An additional contribution to the systemic acidosis is made by the kidneys.  ASA can result in renal damage through its inhibition of prostaglandins which normally serve to vasodilate the intrarenal vasculature. The resultant hypoxic damage can cause the kidneys to not only have diminished capacity for acid-base compensation, but to also retain inorganic acids (phosphoric and sulfuric), which are the primary mechanism by which the nephron excretes hydrogen atoms.  The kidney’s ability to handle acidosis is further diminished by the inhibitory effect of ASA on alpha-ketoglutate dehydrogenase, a TCA enzyme involved in renal ammoniagenesis, a secondary mechanism of renal acid buffering. This effect is compounded by prerenal azotemia caused by volume losses in the form of vomiting and insensible losses from tachypnea and diaphoresis. The metabolic derangement seen in ASA-intoxicated patients is mixed respiratory alkalosis and metabolic alkalosis with a wide anion gap.

As the plasma levels of ASA increase further, central nervous system and pulmonary cell abnormalities result, which in turn cause edema of these tissues. These mechanisms are not fully understood but may result from both direct cellular damage and alteration in hemodynamics leading to vasoconstriction.

Principles of Treatment

There is no antidote to aspirin and the approach to management relies on managing symptoms supportively and decreasing absorption of ASA until elimination of ASA from the serum and tissues, the mainstay of therapy, is successful. The theoretical basis of the latter two will be discussed here, and supportive treatments  specific to ASA intoxication will be discussed in the Clinical Approach section.

Decreasing absorption is generally of little value. Until recently, gastric lavage and induced emesis were used to cleanse the stomach of ASA but it has been commonly accepted that these treatments are not benign and that the risks posed by their implementation are not justified by the marginal benefit they produce.6.9-2J Activated charcoal (and its DIY alternative, burnt toast) remains controversial. The mechanism of action of activated carbon is that is has an enormous surface area (1 gram may have a surface area equal to 500-1,500m2) and a chemical milieu that promotes the non-covalent adsorption of many small organic molecules including aspirin and the salicylates (figure 2). When given orally, it can bind ASA, precluding its systemic absorption via the small intestine.  It works best when given early, but ASA may come in extended release formulations and is known to not only delay gastric emptying and cause pylorospasm, but also to form gastric concretions which cannot be rapidly broken down by digestion. The result of these combined factors is that a large acute ingestion may take up to 12 hours to be fully absorbed and reach peak plasma levels – compared to 1-2 hours in regular 6.9-00doses – and that administration of activated charcoal later in the patient’s presentation may still be beneficial.

Elimination of ASA in mild-moderate toxicity relies on the concept of ion trapping. Acetylsalicylic acid and its main bioactive metabolite, salicylic acid, are weak acids with pKa 3.5, and 3.0, respectively. So long as they are un-ionized, i.e. protonated and uncharged, their passage through cellular membranes is facilitated. This includes peripheral tissues, the blood brain barrier, and the cellular membranes that line the nephrons. If they can pass through these cellular barriers they are more likely to cause toxicity to the tissues, most importantly the brain, and more likely to be reabsorbed in the nephrons, prolonging their time in the body.

The basis of ion trapping is that a deprotonated weak acid (its conjugate base) is a charged molecule (ion) and as such is considerably more polar; causing it to form aqueous complexes and impeding passage through non-polar cellular membranes. It is essentially trapped in the extracellular fluid which keeps it from exerting its toxic effects on the tissues and keeps it in the nephron lumen from which it is ultimately excreted with the urine.

If the Henderson-Hasselbach equation is applied to ASA at a pH of 7.1, an acidotic serum value typical of salicylate toxicity, the concentration of the ionized conjugate base is roughly 4,000 times that of the unionized acid (i.e. for every uncharged molecule, there are 4,000 ionized molecules). At a pH of 7.5, a therapeutic target value discussed later, that ratio increases to nearly 8,000. For salicylic acid, whose toxic effects are comparable to ASA’s, these values are 12,500 and 31,600, more than a 2.5-fold increase. At a pH of 8.0, the ASA ratio is increased to 30,000:1 and the salicylic acid ration is increased to 100,000:1. Having a larger fraction of the molecules in the ionized form decreases the exposure of CNS cells to the toxins and speeds the toxins’ elimination.

It is not always the case that the patient’s condition permits the time necessary for this detoxification. This elimination may also be disrupted in patients with renal impairment which, inconveniently, is a known adverse effect of chronic ASA ingestion. In these cases extracorporeal hemodialysis may be a therapeutic necessity.

Clinical Approach

6.9-3The pathophysiology of ASA toxicity provides a logical framework for understanding its clinical manifestations. Evaluation of the patient can vary depending on the acuity of disease, and if the clinical situation permits it, a history should be attained that can elucidate the quantity of ingestion and the time course. The presence of comorbidities may hint at the possibility of chronic toxicity, which will affect treatment. As with the evaluation of other toxidromes, the clinician should make an effort to elicit the presence of coingestants.

Figure 3 shows the clinical manifestations of acute ASA toxicity and the serum concentrations at which they occur. It should be understood that chronic toxicity results in a more insidious onset and generally lower serum concentrations for a given symptom.

The common alterations in vital signs will be hyperthermia and tachypnea, although hyperpnea (increased depth, rather than frequency, of respirations) may be a more common finding in mild toxicity. Vomiting, hyperventilation and diaphoresis can cause hypovolemia, which may manifest with tachycardia. Hypotension is a more troubling finding and associated with more severe toxicity.

Early symptoms, as elaborated in the preceding section, are tinnitus, hearing deficits and hyperventilation. The patient may otherwise appear mildly distressed and report a history of nausea and vomiting. Symptoms of hyperpyrexia, dehydration, vomiting may initially be managed supportively in the emergency department, but the presence of pulmonary involvement and CNS effects, which may include confusion, agitation, delirium, lethargy, convulsions and coma warrant a considerably more aggressive approach to therapy as well as specialist consultations.

Managing aspirin toxicity is an intensive process in which treatments go hand in hand with lab results, and they will be discussed together. Any patient who presents with salicylism needs to have a serum aspirin level, which can be done by gas chromatography/mass spectrometry, nuclear magnetic resonance, infrared spectroscopy, enzyme specific assays or fluorescence polarization immunoassay. For immediate verification of suspicions, collect a urine specimen and add it to a solution of ferric chloride, mercuric nitrate, and hydrochloric acid, commonly known as the (largely unavailable) Trinder Reagent or Trinder spot test, to detect ASA levels greater than 30mg/dL colorimetrically with very high sensitivity. These ASA levels should be monitored regularly and are an endpoint to treatment. It is critical to recognize that complications of ASA ingestion can manifest in the face of  decreasing and even near-therapeutic levels. The initial salicylate level may be misleading since absorption can be delayed, as discussed.

Acute toxicity begins to manifest at 30-50mg/dL with dose dependent increases in severity of intoxication from there on. A concentration of 100mg/dL in acute ingestion is an absolute indication for hemodialysis. At a serum concentration of 500mg/dL, ASA is uniformly lethal. The information obtained in the anamnesis is important when evaluating the ASA level because chronic ingestion has not only a higher mortality (25% vs. 1% for acute) but manifests complications at lower serum levels. In a chronically intoxicated patient, 50mg/dL is an indication for hemodialysis.

The patient’s acid base status should be regularly assessed with blood gas analysis and pH measurements of the urine. The goal of ion trapping is to administer bicarbonate solution titrated to a urine pH exceeding 7.5 while avoiding a serum pH greater than 7.55. Bicarbonate is given initially as a 1-2mEq/kg bolus and then is added to D5W at 150mEq/L (3 ampules in 1 liter) and administered at 1.5-2 times the normal maintenance requirements (calculated using the 100/50/20 rule or the 4/2/1 rule in children). Forced diuresis should be avoided in attempting to eliminate ASA, and acetazolamide should not be used to alkalinize the urine.

Patients with toxicity are likely to have multiple metabolic derangements and a full electrolyte panel should be drawn initially and as treatment progresses. Vomiting, respiratory alkalosis, ASA-induced renal tubular damage, and inhibition of the electron transport chain (needed for active ion transport) all contribute to a fall in potassium. Hypokalemia should be managed early and aggressively because the renal secretion of H+ and urine alkalization cannot properly work without adequate serum potassium.

The uncoupled oxidative phosphorylation causes a hypermetabolic state that can deplete glucose which should be regularly checked and supplemented as needed. After initial correction with dextrose bolus, maintenance fluids must contain 5% dextrose with bicarbonate. BUN and creatinine levels should be analyzed as renal failure is an absolute indication for hemodialysis and renal impairment should prompt consideration of the possibility.

Patients with severe ASA toxicity can be critically ill, and terminal complications must be identified. The three most ominous features in these patients are hypoventilation, brain edema and pulmonary edema. Most patients with ASA toxicity will present with some measure of hyperventilation. Although this is an independent pathologic process rather than a compensatory physiologic process for metabolic acidosis, it nonetheless provides some measure of serum alkalization which can balance the serum pH  and trap salicylate anions. A hyperventilating patient may pose a concern for “tiring out” and being unable to sustain a respiratory effort, tempting the possibility of intubation. This becomes even more tempting if there is pulmonary edema, especially if there is a degree of hypoxia. The intubation of these patients should be avoided at all costs. The period of apnea needed during RSI, limitations of mechanical ventilation that result in relative hypoventilation, and ventilator asynchrony can all exacerbate acidemia and cause bad outcomes. Non-invasive oxygenation and non-invasive ventilation are alternatives that should be tried first. If intubated, patients must be put on hemodialysis. The best outcomes for intubation and mechanical ventilation are in those patients that are hypoventilating, in whom a high minute ventilation would be beneficial.

Hemodialysis is the last measure that can be taken in the critically ill patients. The indications for hemodialysis are an ASA level of 50mg/dL in chronic ingestions or 75 mg/dL in acute ingestions, CNS symptoms, pulmonary edema, renal or hepatic failure, severe metabolic abnormalities, rising salicylate levels during treatment, and failure of other therapies.

References:

1)  Rosen’s Emergency Medicine – Concepts and Clinical Practice, 7th Edition

2)  Goldfrank’s Manual of Toxicologic Emergencies

3)  Katzung’s Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, 12th edition

4)  Katzung’s Basic and Clinical Pharmacology

5)  Am J Physiol. 1985 Feb;248(2 Pt 2):H225-31.

5)  Mol Cell Biochem. 1992 Sep 8;114(1-2):3-8.

6)  Annals of Emergency Medicine Volume 41, Issue 4 , Pages 583-584, April 2003

7)   http://wichita.kumc.edu/hastings/

8)   https://wikispaces.psu.edu/download/attachments/46924786/image-1.jpg

9)   Journal of Physiology (1995), 485.3, pp.739-752

10) http://www.ata.org/

 

Intern Report 6.8

Case Presentation by Dr. Alexandra Weissman

Chief Complaint:

I’m coughing up blood.

History of Presenting Illness:

The patient is a 22 y/o M with no previous medical problems who has been experiencing lightheadedness, headaches, occasional nausea and vomiting, fatigue, cough, anorexia, and 10 pound weight loss for the past 2 months. The patient was taking Motrin daily for headache.  In October, the patient presented to his PCP’s office initially with these complaints and was found to have nephrotic range pronteinuria of 4.8 on 24 hour urine collection, as well as hypertension of 180s/100s. At this time he was told to follow up with a Nephrologist, however he decided to rest at home and felt somewhat better. However, over the past month the patient has had progressive fatigue and a chronic cough, and in the past two weeks the patient developed hemoptysis, exertional shortness of breath, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, bilateral flank pain, night sweats, fever/chills, nausea and emesis with black clots, anorexia, and non-bloody/non-mucoid diarrhea. The patient also noted intermittent periorbital edema. The patient denies any recent travel, rashes, joint pain, known sick contacts, hematuria, dysuria, or polyuria. The patient has continued to take Motrin multiple times daily for pain. Two weeks ago, the patient presented to the ED with the above complaints and was diagnosed with atypical pneumonia and discharged home with azithromycin. The patient did not improve and returned on 12/24/12 with the same complaints.  The patient denies recent travel inside or outside the country or known sick contacts.

Family Medical History:  HTN

Social History:

Positive for tobacco use and occasional marijuana use, denies other illicit drug use or alcohol use.

Allergies:

NKDA

Review of Systems:

Constitutional:  Fever, Chills, Sweats, Weakness, Decreased activity.

Eye:  Negative.

Ear/Nose/Mouth/Throat:  Negative.

Respiratory:  Shortness of breath, Cough, Sputum production, Hemoptysis, Wheezing.

Cardiovascular:  Tachycardia, No peripheral edema, No syncope. Bilateral pleuritic chest pain.

Gastrointestinal:  Nausea, Vomiting, Diarrhea.  Abdominal pain: Right, The pain is mild.

Genitourinary:  No dysuria, No hematuria, No change in urine stream, No urethral discharge, No lesions.

Hematology/Lymphatics:  No bruising tendency, No bleeding tendency, No swollen lymph nodes.

Endocrine:  No excessive thirst, No polyuria, No excessive hunger.

Immunologic:  Recurrent fevers, Recurrent infections.

Musculoskeletal:  Back, hands and legs cramp up. No back pain, No neck pain, No joint pain.

Integumentary:  No rash, No breakdown, No skin lesion.

Neurologic:  Negative, No confusion, No numbness, No tingling, No headache.

Psychiatric:  Negative.

Physical Exam:

Vital Signs: Blood pressure 154/101, pulse 103, respiratory rate 22, temperature 35.9, and pulse ox 97% on room air.

General:  Alert and oriented, Mild distress, Rigors, Restless.

Eye:  Pupils are equal, round and reactive to light, Extraocular movements are intact.

HENT:  Normocephalic, Atraumatic, Oral mucosa is moist, No sinus tenderness, No nasal discharge, No oral ulcers .

Respiratory:  Breath sounds are equal, Using accessory muscles, RR calculated to be around 40. Auscultation revealed minimal crackles in the lung bases, no wheezes. Dullness to percussion bilateral lower lung fields, left greater than right. Egophony bilaterally at the bases. Crackles heard in the dependent left lung when patient is in the lateral decubitus position, no crackles when patient upright.

Cardiovascular:  Regular rhythm, S1 auscultated, S2 auscultated, No rub, No murmur, Good pulses equal in all extremities, No edema, Tachycardic.

Gastrointestinal:  Soft, Non-distended, Normal bowel sounds, Mild tenderness in the abdomen, mostly in the right middle abdomen. No rebound, No guarding. Positive bowel sounds. No masses appreciated.

Genitourinary:  CVA tenderness bilaterally.

Lymphatics:  No lymphadenopathy.

Musculoskeletal: No tenderness.  No swelling.  No deformity.

Integumentary:  Warm, Intact, No rash.

Neurologic:  Alert, Oriented, No focal defects.

Psychiatric:  Cooperative, Appropriate mood & affect.

Workup:

Electrolytes: 138/3.9|101/17|92/11 anion gap is 20, calcium < 5, phosphorus 7.4

CBC: 10.5/9.2/27.7/349.

INR is 0.97. PTT is 30.8. PT 10.1

Urinalysis: SG 1.025, pH 6, Glucose/Ketones/Leuk Est/Nitrites/Bili/Urobili are negative, 2+ blood, 2+ protein, 2-5 RBC, < 5 WBC, < 5 Epithelial Cells, No casts/crystals/mucus/bacteria/sperm/Trich

12-lead ECG: normal sinus rhythm with a rate of 101 beats per minute.  The axis is normal.  The PR, QRS, and QT intervals are normal.  R-wave progression is normal.  There is no ST elevation or depression.  There are inverted T waves in the lateral precordial leads.  Voltage consistent with LVH, otherwise this is a normal ECG.

 

6.8-1

IMPRESSION:

Rapidly progressing central interstitial pattern.  The differential diagnosis includes atypical pneumonia, atypical pulmonary edema, viral pneumonia, TB, Goodpasture’s disease, lupus vasculitis, Wegener’s granulomatosis, or microscopic polyangiitis.

EXAM:

Ultrasound – Renals – Complete

IMPRESSION:

1.  Mildly echogenic kidneys raise suspicion for medical renal disease.

2.  No hydronephrosis or renal calculus.

3.  Small left pleural effusion.

ED Course:

Initially, given history and physical examination, it was suspected that the patient had HTN and bronchitis refractory to outpatient therapy. However, upon examination of the labs and imaging studies, the differential widened to renal failure of unknown duration with bronchitis vs. nephrotic syndrome vs. pulmonary-renal syndrome (Goodpasture vs. Wegener). The patient was initially admitted to the internal medicine service for renal failure and bronchitis, however he went into respiratory failure requiring intubation while still in the ED. ICU was consulted regarding the patient, and a bronchoscopy was performed in the ED that did not demonstrate an active source of bleeding or tracheobronchal abnormality. Fluid obtained during bronchoscopy was sent for cytology and culture.

 Questions:

1. Which of the following drugs is not known to cause Acute Interstitial Nephritis?

a) Acetaminophen

b) Cephalosporins

c) NSAIDS

d) Penicillins

2. What dangerous complication should you think of in a person presenting with nephrotic syndrome?

a) Myocardial infarction

b) Pulmonary embolism

c) Pneumonia

d) All of the above

3. From and emergency medicine perspective, what is the mainstay of treatment for nephrotic syndrome in an otherwise stable patient?

a) Cyclophosphamide

b) Corticosteroids

c) High-protein diet and follow up with a Nephrologist

d) Oral anticoagulation and supportive treatment

 

DISCUSSION:

Differential Diagnoses (diseases paired with the lab tests that are classically diagnostic)

NSAID-induced AIN – +/- urine eosinophils

Tuberculosis – 3 AFB sputum cultures, Quantiferon gold test

Pneumonia – urine Streptococcal antigen, sputum culture

Legionella – Legionella urine antigen

HIV – ELISA HIV test and Western blot

Goodpasture Syndrome – anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody

Wegener Granulomatosis – ANCA, anti-myeloperoxidase antibody, anti-serine protease 3 antibody

Microscopic Polyangiitis – ANCA, RBC urinary casts, normal C3 and C4

SLE – ANA, dsDNA, anti-Sm, anti-RNP

Sjogren’s syndrome – anti-Ro, anti-La

Scleroderma – Scl-70, anti-Ro, anti-La, anti-RNP

Mixed Connective Tissue Disorders – anti-Ro, anti-La, anti-RNP

Rheumatoid Arthritis – RF, anti-CCP

Churg-Strauss – pANCA (anti-MPO Ab), eosinophilia, RBC urinary casts, RF

Heroin or HIV induced FSGS

Hepatitis B or C induced nephrotic syndrome

Endocarditis

Hospital Course:

The patient was admitted to the ICU for a total stay of 20 days before being stabilized for transfer to the general medical floor. A thorough workup for autoimmune etiologies, infectious etiologies, and toxic etiologies was performed. UDS and SDS were negative.  Urinalysis demonstrated no dysmorphic RBC or RBC casts, with few WBC and WBC casts, and rare tubular cells – these results pointed away from a glomerulonephritis and toward a nephrotic syndrome. Testing for urine eosinophils was negative, however this does not rule out NSAID-induced AIN. All serologic testing for autoimmune disorders was negative including cANCA, pANCA, ENA profile (ANA, dsDNA, anti-Ro, anti-La, anti-RNP, anti-Sm, Scl-70, anti-Jo-1), RF, anti-myeloperoxidase Ab, anti-serine proteinase-3 Ab, C3, C4, IgG and IgG subtypes 1-4, and immunofluroescence assay. ESR and CRP were elevated, however these are nonspecific markers for inflammation. There was initially concern for Tuberculosis since the patient had hemoptysis, weight loss, chronic cough, and sweats, however 3 AFB sputum cultures and Quantiferon Gold testing was negative for Tuberculosis. There was also concern for new-onset HIV, however the patient was found to be HIV negative.  Urine Legionella antigen, urine Streptococcal antigen were negative and ASO were negative. Sputum cultures and BAL cultures with gram stain were negative bacteria, fungi, HSV 1 and 2, Influenza A and B, Parainfluenza 1/2/3, Herpes Zoster, Adenovirus, RSV, Pneumocystis jiroveci, or Chlamydia. Hepatitis B and C were negative as well. TTE did not demonstrate vegetations and blood cultures were negative, therefore endocarditis was highly unlikely.

The patient had at least a 3 month history of elevated creatinine, hypertension, and regular NSAID use. Nephrology concluded that the most likely cause of the patient’s nephrotic syndrome was interstitial nephritis from NSAID use. A renal biopsy was not performed since the patient was considered to have chronic renal disease at the time of presentation and Nephrology stated that renal biopsy would only reveal nonspecific histological findings of focal segmental glomerulosclerolsis at this time. The patient was placed on high dose IV steroids, which he responded to well. The chronic cough likely resulted from pulmonary congestion secondary to hypoalbuminemia and renal failure. Although the initial physical exams did not demonstrate edema, periorbital edema is a common finding in nephrotic syndrome, and in children is often one of the first signs of the disease. Low oncotic pressure in the intravascular space secondary to hypoalbuminemia creates a gradient for water to move to the extravascular space, resulting in peripheral edema. Chronic edema affects the gastrointestinal tract as well, causing defective absorption and often resulting in diarrhea and chronic malnutrition.

Answers:

1. A – Acetaminophen is not known to cause AIN. Many drugs are implicated in the development of AIN, most commonly NSAIDS, penicillins, diuretics, cephalosporins, rifampin, anticoagulants, and proton-pump inhibitors. AIN can also result from infection with HIV, tuberculosis, bacterial, fungal, protozoan, and rickettsial infections as well as in association with autimmune states such as SLE, Scleroderma, Sjogren’s Syndrome, sarcoidosis, and essential cryoglobinemia. The pathophysiology of drug-induced AIN involves both the humoral and cellular immune systems. Antibodies directed at the drug can be found on the tubular basement membrane, and biopsy reveals a mixture of T cells, eosinophils, plasma cells, and monocytes. Effacement of the podocyte processes is a common histological finding in NSAID-induced AIN.

2. D – Nephrotic syndrome is associated with venous thromboembolism including pulmonary embolism and deep venous thrombosis, myocardial infarction, and pneumonia. In nephrotic syndrome, a prothrombotic state emerges due to to the loss of antithrombin III and plasminogen secondary to renal losses of these proteins. At the same time, the liver is induced to make more proteins, including clotting factors, in response to hypoalbuminemia from renal losses of albumin. As for myocardial infarction, the increased hepatic synthesis of proteins also results in increased synthesis of lipoproteins, which results in accelerated atherosclerosis and hyperlipidemia. The increased synthesis of lipids results in lipiduria, which is why oval fat bodies and fatty casts are typical urine sediment findings in nephrotic syndrome. Lastly, it is hypothesized that the increased renal losses of proteins including immune globulins combined with the malnourished low protein state predisposes the body to infection in nephrotic syndrome.

3. B – In addition to treating the underlying infection or removing the offending drug, corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment for nephrotic syndrome of autoimmune, infectious, drug-induced, or idiopathic etiology. Corticosteroids reduce the inflammatory response via inhibition of inflammatory mediator gene transcription and thus also diminish proteinuria. They are particularly effective for Minimal Change Disease in children. However, there are steroid resistant forms of nephrotic syndrome that do require more cytotoxic agents such as cyclophosphamide or cyclosporine.  Other medications given for supportive therapy are diuretics for associated edema, ACE-inhibitors for their anti-hypertensive and renal protective benefits, low salt and 1-2g/kg protein diet.

Intern Report 6.7

Case Presentation by Dr. Katherine Schulman

A little background:

27-year-old African American male seen as follows:

DRH ED:  7/15/2012: ( Time 0 )

C/C:  “My eyes are irritated.”

HPI:  bilateral eye irritation starting a month prior, mild photophobia, markedly injected, greenish discharge

Final Impression/Diagnosis:  Bilateral Conjunctivitis, discharged with Gentamicin ophthalmic solution, f/u w/ Kresge.

DRH ED:  7/22/2012: ( Time +7 Days )

C/C:  “My eyes still hurts.”

HPI:  Pt reports that he never did f/u with Kresge, but has been using the eye drops prescribed.  He states his eyes have gotten progressively more red, with increasing discharge, increasing photophobia, blurry vision, and foreign body sensation bilaterally.

Final Impression/Diagnosis: bilateral conjunctivitis, with evidence of pseudomembrane formation over the left eye.  Ophthalmology consulted and spoken with on phone.  They recommended atropine for symptomatic relief, erythromycin ointment, and artificial tears.  f/u w/ Kresge.

Pt did f/u w/ Kresge on 7/27/12 ( Time +12 Days ):  pt continued on medications as started in the ED, including Pataday (Olopatadine – is a mast cell stabilizer and a histamine H1 antagonist) drops for symptomatic allergy relief.

Final Impression/diagnosis:  Keratoconjunctivitis OU suspected.  Pt advised to f/u within a week (which he did not, next visit as described in case).

CASE:  10/30/2012 ( Time +107 Days )

C/C and HPI:  27-year-old African American male presents to Kresge Eye Institute, last seen in July.  Pt c/o blurry vision, eye discharge -yellow, injection, photophobia, and decreased visual acuity bilaterally for 4 months.

ROS:

Constitutional:  denies fevers, chills;

Eye:  redness, tearing, discharge, foreign body sensation, blurry vision;

ENT:  denies oral lesions;  Head:  denies HA;

GI: denies N/V/D;

GU:  denies dysuria, discharge;

Musculoskeletal:  denies joint pain/swelling, muscle aches;

Skin:  denies rash

Past Medical History: none

Past Surgical History: none

Medications: Only ophthalmic medications as in the previous months

Allergies: No known drug allergies

Family History: Hypertension

Primary care physician: None

Social History: Positive for tobacco and alcohol use.  Denies illicit drug use.

Physical Exam: (Kresge Eye Institute, thus only focused eye exam done)

Eye:

General:  sclera injected bilaterally, mucopurulent discharge, swelling to upper lids

Visual Acuity:  OD 20/30, OS 20/30

Pupils:  dim light 3mm -> bright light 2mm OD & OS

Confrontation:  Full to finger count OD & OS

Motility:  EOMI OD & OS

Slit Lamp Exam:

Eyelids – meibomian gland plugging and mattering OD & OS

Conjunctiva:  numerous, giant papillae and follicles OD & OS, 2+ injection OD,  1+ injection OS

Anterior Chamber:  deep and quiet OD & OS

Iris:  round and reactive OD & OS

Lens:  WNL OD & OS

247374_P1

Picture A

1.  Considering simply the duration of his ophthalmic complaints, which of the following should be considered on the list of differentials (please choose 2 below):

A).  Allergic Conjunctivitis

B).  Corneal Abrasion

C).  Chlamydial Inclusion Conjunctivitis

D).  Gonococcal Infective Conjunctivitis

2.  What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

A).  Allergic Conjunctivitis

B).  Corneal Abrasion

C).  Chlamydial Inclusion Conjunctivitis

D).  Gonococcal Infection

3.  What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

A).  Tetracycline 250mg QID x 14 days

B).  Ciprofloxacin 500mg PO BID x 10 days

C).  Vancomycin 15-20mg/kg IV QID plus Clindamycin 600mg IV TID x 5 days

D).  Erythromycin ophthalmic ointment BID x 21 days

 

Case Discussion:

1.    Considering simply the duration of his ophthalmic complaints, which of the following should be considered high on the list of differentials (please choose 2 options below):

A).  Allergic Conjunctivitis

B).  Corneal Abrasion

C).  Chlamydial Inclusion Conjunctivitis

D).  Gonococcal Infective Conjunctivitis

 

ANSWERS: 

1)         A, C

2)         C

3)         A

This patient has had ophthalmic symptoms for 4 months now.

Allergic Conjunctivitis:  Symptoms may be present for days, weeks, or months, as long as the offending agent is present.   Symptoms include:  itchy/ watery eyes and injected sclera.  TX: antihistamines, avoidance of stimuli, OTC lubricating/allergy relief eye drops, warm compresses.

Corneal Abrasion:  Injury to the superficial epithelial layer of the cornea heals fairly quickly – in days usually 24-48 hours, but certainly not weeks, nor months.  TX:  Erythromycin ophthalmic ointment QID x 10 days.  In contact lens users – d/c use of contacts and use topical antibiotic solutions with antipseudomonal coverage, such as: gentamicin, levofloxacin, etc.

Chlamydial Inclusion Conjunctivitis:  As described in the case above.  Can occur unilaterally or bilaterally in sexually active young people.  If not treated properly, inclusion conjunctivitis runs a course of 3-9 months or longer.  Details of disease and treatment are discussed below.

Gonococcal Infective Conjunctivitis:  Marked by profuse purulent (not mucopurulent) exudates and progresses quickly.  Exposure can lead to full ocular perforation and blindness within 24-48 hours.   Remember, every baby gets prophylactic treatment preferably with erythromycin ointment.

Other Common Conditions:

Blepharitis:  Inflammation of the eyelids.  Most often bilateral and symmetrical.  Patients often complain of a ‘gritty’ sensation.  Blepharitis is quite often chronic in nature, which can be managed with good eye hygiene/cleansing scrub and warm compresses.

Viral Conjunctivitis:  The most common!  Usually caused by adenovirus, following URIs and is quite contagious.  Patients present with redness, tearing, mild mucous discharge, and itchy/irritated eyes.  Often starts in one eye, but can easily spread without good hygiene.   Symptoms are self-limiting and don’t generally last longer than 4 weeks.  Care is supportive, with emphasis on good hand-eye hygiene.

**KRESGE EYE INSTIT ** UTES FINAL IMPRESSION:  Chlamydial conjunctivitis, bilateral papillary reaction worse on upper lids with mucopurulent discharge, multiple infiltrates with pannus formation.  Patient given a prescription for Tetracycline 250mg QID x 14 days.  Swab sent to lab – positive.

More about Chlamydial Inclusion Conjunctivitis:

Chlamydial conjunctivitis is a sexually transmitted disease, and it occurs most commonly in sexually active young adults. The disease is generally transmitted through hand-to-eye or orogenital spread of infected genital secretions. The incubation period can take up to 14 days.  An estimated 1 in 300 patients with genital Chlamydia develop conjunctivitis.

This is more commonly a unilateral eye infection, though it can be seen bilaterally as in the case above.

Patients may present with many of the following symptoms:  photophobia, foreign body sensation, decreased visual acuity/blurry vision, swollen lids, injected sclera, tearing, mucopurulent discharge.  Patients often awake in the morning with significant crusting of lashes and eyelids temporarily stuck together from the drying of the mucopurulent discharge.

The clinical findings seen in Chlamydial Conjunctivitis may also resemble other forms of infectious conjunctivitis.  Infected individuals often have preauricular adenopathy.  On closer exam through slit lamp:  a follicular reaction is the key feature of a chlamydial conjunctivitis, often involving the bulbar conjunctiva and semilunar folds, and papillary hypertrophy.  Take a look at the huge follicles in the pictures below.

6.7-b

Picture B

A diagnosis can be made based on the signs, symptoms, and the clinical suspicion.  A culture may be taken to confirm, but start oral antibiotic treatment immediately with high clinical suspicion.

Treatment:

Topical antibiotics are generally ineffective, and thus systemic antibiotics are the mainstay of treatment.  The following are used:  tetracycline, doxycycline, erythromycin, azithromycin.  A course of 2-3 weeks of oral antibiotics is warranted.

References:

Mandel, Douglas, Bennett:  Microbial Conjunctivitis:  Principles of Infectious Diseases, ed. 7  2009 (Ch) 110.

Sharma R, Brunette DD:  Ophthalmology: Rosen’s Emergency Medicine.  7th edition.  2010.  Ch 69:  859-876.

Root, Timothy.  Eye Infections.  Ophthobook.  Retrieved Jan 3rd, 2013 from ophthobook.com

 

 

Intern Report 6.6

Case Presentation by Dr. Brian Holowecky

Chief Complaint: 

Headache

History of Present Illness:

A 13-year-old obese woman with a past medical history of chronic headaches presents to the emergency department for five days of a headache that is associated with nausea and vomiting. The headache started in the frontal region and now involves the entire head. The pain was initially improved by acetaminophen and ibuprofen, but now is persistent despite these medications. According to mom, the patient is confused, is walking into walls, is vomiting all day, and has new onset right sided weakness in the upper and lower extremities. The patient complains of tingling in her right hand and reports weakness in her right foot. She also reports photophobia, dizziness, and an unsteady gait. There is no history of trauma, international travel, or dental problems. She is pre- enarchal. She also is complaining of severe intermittent sore throat and chest discomfort x3 weeks. “It feels like something is getting stuck in my throat.” She has been treated by her pediatrician for GERD x 3 weeks. One day prior to admission she was dx’d by pediatrician with viral etiology of sore throat with a negative Rapid Strep Test.

Review of Systems:

General: Vomiting, difficulty sleeping, nausea

HEENT: sore throat, congestion, blurry vision twice in past 7 days. No toothache

Cardiac: No chest pain or palpitations

Lungs: Cough x 1 week

Abd: Denies blood in stool, diarrhea

G/U: No blood in urine. No dysuria, hematuria, nocturia

Skin: Some bruises from softball practice.

Neuro: Headaches x 6 months

Heme/Immunologic: No allergies, no bleeding

Past Medical History:

Chronic migraines, seasonal allergies, GERD

Family History:

Mom – Schizophrenia vs Borderline Personality Disorder, depression, agoraphobia

Brother – “Hole in his heart at birth that went away.”

Father – No medical problems.

Paternal Grandfather – Wilson’s Disease

Social History:

Pt lives at home with mom, dad, brother and dog. Older sister who doesn’t live at home has pet pythons. Patient plays competitive softball and is usually very active. Father is a truck driver who delivers loads between the Ohio River Valley and the American Southwest. Pt occasionally rides with him on trips. The family extensively gardens.

Physical Exam:

Vitals: Temp 38.2 HR 125 RR 20 BP 144/83 saturation 99%

General: Obese adolescent girl appears in moderate distress. Confused/Anxious

HEENT: Bilateral Papilledema. No conjunctival hemorrhages. No photophobia. No sinus

tenderness to percussion. Oropharynx clear of lesions with normal healthy dentition.

Neck: Supple. No lymphadenopathy. No masses. No meningismus.

Lungs: Lungs CTAB. No retractions. Breathing non-labored.

Cardio: Regular rate and rhythm. No systolic murmur.

Abdomen: Soft. Epigastric/LUQ tenderness. No guarding or rebound. No organomegaly.

Musculoskeletal: R side weakness upper and lower extremity. Weakness appears more

proximal. No clonus. No babinski.

Neuro: Right sided facial weakness with decreased nasolabial folds without forehead sparing. Slight R tongue deviation. EOMI. PERRL. Other cranial nerves intact. Right Upper

Extremity 2-3/5 strength. Right lower extremity 3/5 strength. Left upper/lower

extremities 5/5. Diffuse symmetical hyporeflexia 1+. Sensation intact. Abnormal gait

- favoring the right side.

ED Course:

Patient was referred from outside hospital for suspicious lesions on head CT.  IV access was obtained. Blood work sent. Patient sent to CT for confirmation.  Also blood cultures, UA, CXR, urine electrolytes.  Consult was placed to neurosurgery and infectious disease.

CBC – 13.57/11/32/411

Electrolytes – 129/4.0|97/21|8/0.67

AST/ALT – 12/13

INR – 1.2

ESR/CRP – 56/227 (elevated)

CXR – No acute process.

UA – ketonuria, proteinuria.  No other abnormalities.

Urine electrolytes WNL

The patient was started on dexamethasone secondary to her neurological findings.  She was empirically treated with ceftriaxone, vancomycin, metronidazole, and bactrim.

6.6-1

Figure 1. Head CT

6.6-2
Figure 2. Abdominal CT

Later in her extensive hospital course, this patient was found to have hilar lymphadenopathy an esophagomediastinal fistula.  Plasma serology came back positive for histoplasmodium. 

6.6-3
Figure 2b. Esophogram.

There is extravasation of contrast on the right side proximally to the third rib.  Contrast is seen collecting in a small featureless structure just to the right and superior to the actual fistula/or leak. The esophagus is displaced to the left likely due to fluid collection, abscess, lymphadenopathy or a combination of the above.

Questions:

1. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to performing a LP?

a) Elevated ESR/CRP

b) Intoxication

c) Papilledema

d) Gait disturbance

2. Which finding explains the mechanism of hematogenous spread from a mediastinal lesion to

the formation of brain abscesses?

a) systolic ejection murmur

b) microcytic anemia

c) splenomegaly

d) feculent vomit

3. Which of the following raises the greatest suspicion for a space occupying lesion in the

brain?

a) unilateral distribution

b) not relieved by hydromorphone

c) vomiting in the morning

d) phonophobia

One Step Further:

How is Histoplasma transmitted between hosts?

a) Spores in the arid Southwest USA

b) Fecal/Oral Transmission of endospores

c) Inhalation of microconidia in dust

d) Inhalation of pidgeon feces

 

Explanation/Discussion:

Case Report:

This is a case of an obese adolescent girl from Grand Rapids, MI, who was found to have 2 discrete brain abscesses and a splenic abscess with positive cultures for Viridans Streptococci.  Her serum was positive for histoplasma, which is endemic to the upper Midwest. The nidus of infection is presumed to be from histoplasma lymphadenitis that led to an esophagomediastinal fistula, which then allowed normal flora of the oropharynx to become a disseminated bacterial infection of normal flora in an immunocompetent young girl.

Her social history was uniquely important in her case.  She had multiple classic social history risk factors for a variety of rare and unusual possible pathogens.  Her father being a truck driver in the midwest (histoplasmosis) and traveling to the arid Southwest (cocciodides).  Her sister had exotic pets.  She was a gardener which is a classic history for a patient with a nocardia infection.  Bactrim was added for nocardia coverage.

Hospital Course: Admitted with consult to infectious disease. Patient started on broad-spectrum antibiotics eventually with the addition of Amphotericin B, to her regimen of Vancomycin, Rocephin, Bactrim, Metronidazole.  Complications included Acute Kidney Failure from her antifungal medication, red man syndrome from Vancomycin.

Her neurological symptoms resolved over the course of one week, with persisten bilateral papilledema.  She underwent a head/neck ULS to rule out obstruction as a cause for venous congestion and papilledema, which was normal.

6.6-5

Figure 3.  MR with spectroscopy of brain lesions. 

An MR with spectroscopy was ordered to determine the etiology of the brain lesions.  An MR signal produces resonances that corresond to various excited states of various metabolites and isotopes.  It was used to confirm that the lesions were indeed due to abscesses rather than a neoplasm or other etiology.  There was a large lactate doublet which was interpreted by infectious disease and radiology to be infectious in nature.

Patient underwent an extensive workup that revealed:

–mediastinal lympadenitis

Histoplasma positive serology testing

–esophagomediastinal fistula

–splenic and brain abscesses positive for S. viridans.

Echo revealed no PFO or shunt with bubble study.  There were no lung lesions.

The working diagnosis is histoplasma mediastinal lymphadenitis that caused an erosion leadingto an esophagomediastinal fistula, which lead to bacteremia and hematogenous spread to discrete lesions in the spleen and brain. 

Learning points from this case:

Differential for ring-enhancing lesions on Head CT:

Ring enhancing brain lesions are suggestive of a variety pathologies.  The ring enhancement is usually due to edematous changes.  The rings suggest that the pathology is chronic or resolving as in the case of an abscess, or hematoma.  Multipe infections can lead to ring enhancing lesions most notably

MAGIC DR

M – Metastasis

A – Abscess (toxoplasmosis, cryptococcus, coccidiodes, blastomycosis, neurocysticercosis, nocardia)

G – Glioma

I – Infarct (resolving)

C – Contusion/Hematoma (Resolving)

D – Demyelinating Disease

R – Radiation Necrosis

6.5-7

Figure 4.  Head MRI.

Shows two discrete ring enhancing lesions.  The lesion in the internal capsule on the left side is the likely etiology of her right sided weakness.  The MRI also reveals edematous changes in the optic nerve consistent with papilledema.

6.6-8

Figure 4.  Head MRI (continued)

Hematogenous Spread of Infection

Hematogenous spread of infection is a common source of disseminated bacterial or fugal disease. However, there are only a few mechanisms responsible for the spread of disease from the infracranial region to the brain. The most common mechanism is hematogenous spread through the systemic and pulmonary circulation. However, this invariably leads to pulmonary nodules as some of the bacteria seed the lungs prior to entering the heart, which would have been seen on CT.

The presence of a shunt can explain the lack of pulmonary findings. The most common type of shunt that bypasses the pulmonary circulation is a vegetation that passes from the right atrium to the left atrium through a patent foramen ovale. The most common murmur in patient with a PFO is a midsystolic ejection murmur that is heard best at the upper sternal border. An echo with bubble study can also be used for confirmation.

Answers:

1. C) Papilledema is an absolute contraindication to an LP. Any clinical finding that suggests an acute elevation of intracranial pressure is a contraindication to LP. The risk of performing an LP in a patient with elevated ICP is the potential for a decrease in pressure of the spinal cavity resulting in herniation of the cerebellum and subsequent brainstem impingement.  This can lead to rapid deterioration and death.

Intoxication is not an absolute contraindication to LP.

ESR/CRP elevation is a nonspecific finding. Elevations are due to an increase in inflammation,but do not indicate that the inflammation originates in the nervous system.

Gait Disturbance should raise your suspicion for increased intracranial pressure, especially from hydrocephalus. However, it is not an absolute contraindication to lumbar puncture.

2. A) systolic ejection murmur. May indicate an atrioseptal defect or patent foramen ovale. The presence of a PFO allows for infectious agents to bypass the lungs and enter the systemic circulation.  When there is no shunt, the infectious agent often becomes lodged in the distal pulmonary vasculature causing pulmonary lesions on chest radiography.

Microcytic anemia is not associated with hematogenous spread of bacteria. Macrocytic anemia is associated with splenomegaly due to erthyrocyte sequestration.

Feculent vomit should raise your suspicion for a bowel obstruction.

Splenomegaly may be due to a splenic abscess, but does not explain the mechanism of hematogenous spread to the brain.

3. C) Morning vomiting is a concerning sign of an intracranial lesion. Intracranial pressure is highest in the morning after sleeping through the night in a recumbent position.

Unilateral distribution of a headache is a nonspecific finding. It may be seen in migraine type headaches, cluster headaches, or even tension headaches.

Phonophobia is classically associated with a migraine headache and extracranial tumors of the vestibular system.

Hydromorphone is not indicated for headache treatment.

One step further: C) Inhalation of microconidia in dust. Histoplasma is endemic to the Ohio and Mississippi River valleys. It is spread by inhalation of microconidia in dust contaminated with excreta from bats, starlings, or chickens. It is classically associated with spelunkers and chicken farmers.

Intern Report 6.5

Case Presentation by Dr. Laura Smylie

History of Present Illness:

50 year old male complaining of being “sick” for the past three to four days. He stated he began feeling generally poorly with an associated pain in his left shoulder. He states the pain is sharp in nature and he denies trauma to the area. The pain radiates to the axilla and is sharp and pulling in that area. He denies chest pain. He has been feeling hot and cold but has not taken his temperature at home. He has been diaphoretic. He has a mild nonproductive cough. He denies abdominal pain, nausea or vomiting. He denies shortness of breath.

Review of systems negative except as detailed in the HPI.

Past Medical History: No hypertension

Past Surgical History: none

Medications: None

Allergies: No known drug allergies

Family History: Negative for hypertension.

Primary care physician: None

Social History: Positive for tobacco use and IVDA. Denies alcohol use.

Physical Exam:

Vitals: T 39.5 rectal, HR 98 regular, BP 180/80, RR 24, Pulse ox 97% room air

Constitution: Thin male, alert, in no apparent distress.

Head: Normocephalic, atraumatic

Eyes: Pupils equal, round and reactive to light. Sclera nonicteric. Conjunctiva pictured below.

ENT: Mucous membranes slightly dry. No erythema in the posterior pharynx or tonsillar exudates.

Neck is supple. Trachea midline. No JVD.

Respiratory: Normal respiratory effort. Clear inspiration. Few scattered rales in bilateral bases, no wheezing. Good air exchange.

Cardiovascular: Regular rate and rhythm. 3/6 systolic murmur at the sternal edge. No gallop. Pulses were equal in the extremities.

Chest wall: Nontender.

Abdomen: Soft, nontender, nondistended. No rebounding or guarding.

Musculoskeletal: Right side extremities unremarkable. He has full range of motion at the right shoulder. No erythema or warmth over the left shoulder. No swelling, no tenderness of the clavicle. No tenderness over the AC joint. Some pain with passive motion but full range of motion present.

Skin: Warm and dry. No rashes or lesions.

Neurologic: Alert and orient to person, place and time. Cranial nerves II-VII intact. Gait is narrow and steady. Normal Speech, Strenght 5/5 upper and lower extremities both proximal and distal muscle groups

Picture 1:

6.5-1

 Medical Course:

IV access was established. Blood was sent for analysis. Blood cultures were sent and are pending.

CBC: 7.4\14.9/139

Electrolytes: 139 | 92 | 27

3.5 | 22 | 1.0

Questions:

1)Which one test is most likely to solidify the diagnosis:

a) ECG

b) 2 view chest x-ray

c) Echo – usually needs to be TEE (where do blood culture fall in the diagnostic workup?)

d) This is a clinical diagnosis

2) Given this patients most likely diagnosis, what is the most commonly found physical finding :

a) Murmur

b) Conjunctival hemorrhage/petechiae

c) Splenomegaly

d) Fever

3) The most appropriate initial empiric therapy for the patient in this case is:

a) Penicillin G + nafcillin

b) Vancomycin alone

c) Vancomycin + gentamicin

d) Vancopime

 

 

Answers:

 

  1. C. echo
  2. D. fever
  3. B vancomycin aloneNICE guidelines published in 2008 made an even more radical departure from the past.22 They do not recommend antibiotic prophylaxis for dental, or non-dental procedures (eg, respiratory, gastrointestinal, and genitourinary)

 

Discussion:

 

This patient’s history of IV drug abuse and fever should bring infective endocarditis near the top of the differential diagnosis. The physical exam finding of cardiac murmur should further heighten suspicion. The finding of conjunctival petechiae should reinforce this suspicion – although this vascular finding is not pathognomonic for endocarditis, it is one of the minor criteria that can help make the diagnosis. The most common physical finding is fever – up to 30% of those with endocarditis do not present with murmur, although the vast majority do have a murmur at some point in their disease course.

 

 

 

6.5-1

 

Conjunctival hemorrhage – septic emboli

 

 

 

Infective endocarditis is an infection of the endocardial surface of the heart, most commonly one or more of the cardiac valves, but can also include a septal defect or the mural endocardium itself. The pathophysiology of this disease is classically a valve with mechanical damage at which a sterile thrombus initially forms, which then becomes infected when a subclinical bacteremia is induced (ie, with IV drug injection, after dental procedures, endoscopy, cystoscopy, etc). IV drug users may have damaged valves secondary to contaminants in drugs such as talc. Valves also can become damaged with age secondary to degenerative changes.

 

 

 

Incidence and Risk:

 

The incidence of infective endocarditis varies widely depending on which part of the country in which you practice – it is very dependent on the prevalence of high risk indiviuals in the specific population. What is clear is that over 50% of those diagnosed with endocarditis are over the age of 60.

 

Presentation is most often a febrile patient who is high risk. Those at high risk include:

 

  • IV drug users (as in the case presented here),

 

  • Patients with prosthetic heart valves,

 

  • Unrepaired cyanotic congenital heart disease (which includes palliative shunts and conduits),

 

  • Completely repaired congenital heart defects with prosthesis during the first 6 months after the procedure,

 

  • Repaired congenital heart disease with residual defect at or adjacent to the site of the prosthetic device, and

 

  • Cardiac valvulopathy in a transplanted heart.

 

Diagnosis:

 

The Duke Criteria are widely accepted to stratify patients with suspected infective endocarditis into three categories: Definite, Possible, and Rejected. These criteria have been validated multiple times after the original study of 69 patients. Although there have been proposed updates to these criteria (including any s. aureus bacteremia in high risk patients as a major criteria), the original Duke Criteria are 95% sensitive and 99% specific.

 

Major Criteria include:

 

  • Positive blood cultures (of typical pathogens) from >=two sites
  • Definitive evidence of endocardial involvement by echo, including endocardial vegetation, paravalvular abscess, new partial dehiscence of prosthetic valve or new valvular regurgitation
  • *It has been proposed to add S.Aureus positive bacteremia

 

Minor Criteria include:

 

  • Predisposition defined as a predisposing heart condition (as described above) or IVDA
  • Vascular phenomena including arterial emboli, septic pulmonary infarcts, mycotic aneurysm, conjunctival hemorrhages, or Janeway lesions.
  • Immunologic phenomena including Osler’s nodes, Roth’s spots, and rheumatoid factor
  • Microbiologic evidence, ie single positive blood culture
  • Echocardiogram findings “consistent with endocarditis but do not meet major criteria” *(with the advancement of technology and widespread availability of TEE, it has been proposed to take this off)

 

 6.5-2

 

 Roth spots – retinal hemorrhage with central pallor

 

 

 6.5-3

 

Splinter hemorrhage – septic emboli seen under nails

 

 6.5-4

 

Osler’s nodes – Painful lesions seen on finger/toe pads (caused by immune complexes)

 

Janeway Lesions – nontender lesions on the palms/soles (septic emboli)

 

6.5-5

 

Mycotic aneurysm of MCA seen on noncontrast head CT – (although any artery can be affected, intracranial arteries are most often involved followed by visceral arteries and then arteries supplying extremities.)

 

 

Definite Endocarditis – any one of the following combinations of clinical findings:

 

  1. Two major clinical criteria
  2. One major and any three minor criteria
  3. Five minor criteria

 

Possible Endocarditis – any one of the following combinations of clinical findings:

 

  1. One major and one or two minor criteria
  2. Three minor criteria

 

Rejected Endocarditis – any one of the following are present:

 

  1. A firm alternative diagnosis
  2. Resolution of clinical manifestations occurring after <= 4 days of antibiotic therapy
  3. Clinical criteria for possible or definite endocarditis is not met.

 

 

 

Antimicrobial therapy:

 

Most common pathogens: S. aureus (32%); s. viridans (18%); enterococci (11%); coagulase negative staph (11%), Streptococcus bovis (7%); other strep (5%); non-HACEK gram-negatives (2%); fungi (2%); HACEK – Haemophilus aphrophilus, Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans, Cardiobacterium hominis, Eikenella corrodens, Kingella kingae (2%)

 

 

 

Choice of empiric antibiotics depends on the patient’s main risk factor for endocarditis. For patients with a native valve who are not IV drug users, the best choice is:

 

  • Penicillin G 5 million units IV q4h + nafcillin 2g IV q4h

OR

  • Vancomycin 15mg/kg IV q 12h

AND

  • Gentamicin 1mg/kg IV q8h

 

For patients with a native valve who are IVDA:

 

  • Vancomycin 15mg/kg IV q12h

 

For patients with prosthetic valve:

 

  • Vancomycin 15mg/kg IV q12 + Gentamicin 1mg/kg IV q8h

 

Complications:

 

  •  Heart failure is linked to infective endocarditis and is a complication associated with poorer outcomes. Whether the patient’s CHF is a result of endocarditis or a separate preceding entity, patients tend to have increased mortality.
  • Extension of endocarditis beyond the valve’s annulus is also associated with a significantly higher mortality.
  • Mycotic aneurysms, if present intracranially, are associated with a 60% mortality.

 

 

 

 

 

Prophylaxis to prevent Endocarditis during procedures in the ED:

 

  • NICE (National Institute for Health and Clinical Excellence) guidelines published in 2008 do not recommend antibiotic prophylaxis for dental, or non-dental procedures (eg, respiratory, gastrointestinal, and genitourinary)
  • The American Heart Association also published guidelines against prophylaxis even in high risk populations in 2007.

 

 

Clinical Pearls:

  • In patients presenting with fever and IVDA or some cardiac history, keep infective endocarditis high on the differential and look for clues on physical exam to confirm diagnosis
  • Infective Endocarditis can be definitively diagnosed in the ED! An echo positive for valvular vegetation and significant physical findings with and IVDAer and fever.
  • However, ALWAYS SEND AT LEAST TWO BLOOD CULTURES (some sources say three from three different sites) – this will help our colleagues tailor the therapy appropriately once the pathogen has been identified and susceptibilities are available.

References:

“Diagnosis, Antimicrobial Therapy, and Management of Complications: A Statement for Healthcare Professionals From the Committee on Rheumatic Fever, Endocarditis, and Kawasaki Disease, Council on Cardiovascular Disease in the Young, and the Councils on Clinical Cardiology, Stroke, and Cardiovascular Surgery and Anesthesia, American Heart Association—Executive Summary: Endorsed by the Infectious Diseases Society of America.” Circulation. 2005; 111: 3167-3184

Garg SJ, Sivalingam A, Bolling J, Goldberg R, Sivalingam J, Magargal L. Ocular Abnormalities in Acquired Heart Disease. Duane’s Ophthalmology. 2006. Vol 5. http://www.oculist.net/downaton502/prof/ebook/duanes/pages/v5/v5c022.html

The Hand in Pathology. Stanford School of Medicine. Stanfordmedicine35.stanford.edu/the25/hand.html

Lee W, Mossop P, Little A, Fitt G, Vrazas J, Hoang J, Hennessy O. Infected (Mycotic) Aneurysms: Spectrum of Imaging Appearances and Management. RadioGraphics, 28, 1853-1868. November 2008.

Li JS, Sexton DJ, Mick N, Nettles R, Fowler VG Jr, Ryan T, Bashore T, Corey GR. Proposed modifications to the Duke criteria for the diagnosis of infective endocarditis. Clinical Dis. 2000 Apr; 30(4):633-8.

Infective Endocarditis.  Rosen’s Emergency Medicine.  7th edition.  2010.  Print.

 

Intern Report 6.4

Case Presentation by Dr. Daniel Hutchens

History of Present Illness:

A 52 year old man with a past medical history of hypertension presents to the ED with complaints of acute onset chest pain for 8 hours.  The patient was sitting at home when it started and denies any exertional component.  The pain is sharp, located retrosternally, and radiates to the left neck and shoulder.  The pain is worse during inspiration and when lying flat, and is relieved by sitting upright and leaning forward.  Patient took his blood pressure medication at home and did not feel relief so he came to the ED.  He does not take aspirin.  He feels SOB and states that he had a URI 1 week ago.  There has been no recent travel.  He states toward the end of the exam that he is worried about the cost of his care as he just lost his job.

Review of Systems:

Admits to a mild cough and occasional dizziness, otherwise negative except as per HPI.

Past Medical History: Hypertension

Past Surgical History: No surgical history

Medications: HCTZ

Allergies: NKDA

Social History: Denies tobacco, occasional alcohol, occasional marijuana

Family History: HTN, father with an acute MI (AMI) at 65

Physical Examination:

VS: BP 142/92 mmHg, HR 110, RR 20, O2 Sat 97% on room air, Temp 38.0°C
Head: Atraumatic
ENT: PERRLA, EOMI, throat is non-erythematous
Neck: Supple, no carotid bruits
Heart: RRR, there is a high pitched scratching sound heard that remains with suspension of respiration
Lungs: CTAB, no wheezing, no rales, ronchi are heard that remain with suspension of respiration
Abdomen: Soft, nontender, nondistended, positive bowel sounds
Skin: No rash
Neurologic: Gait is normal.

IV access was established; patient was put on oxygen, cardiac monitoring, and given an aspirin.  12 lead EKG was obtained.

ECG 6.4

A line was placed and labs were sent including a BMP, CBC, coagulation panel, and troponin.  CXR was obtained.

cxr 6.4

Cardiac ultrasound (US) was performed at the bedside.

us 6.4

Labs came back and Troponin I was <0.017.  Serum electrolytes as well as BUN and Cr were wnl.  CBC and coagulation studies were wnl.

Questions:

1.) What is the best treatment in this patient’s case?
a. Indomethacin
b. Ibuprofen
c. Colchicine
d. Prednisone

2.) What is a distinguishing factor for acute pericarditis vs. AMI on EKG?
a. PR interval elevation
b. Inverted T waves in the anterior and inferior leads
c. ST-segment depressions in the precordial leads with reciprocal changes
d. Diffuse ST-segment elevations with no reciprocal changes

3.) How can you use serum biomarkers with EKG to help diagnose acute pericarditis over AMI?
a. Biomarker elevation will be moderate compared to what would be expected in AMI given the EKG findings
b. Biomarker elevation will be higher compared to what would be expected in AMI given the EKG findings
c. Biomarker elevation is never seen in acute pericarditis
d. There is no relation between biomarker elevation and EKG findings in acute pericarditis

 

Answers to the questions:

1.) b. Ibuprofen

2.) d. Diffuse ST elevations with no reciprocal changes

3.) a. Biomarker elevation will be moderate compared to what would be expected given the EKG findings

Discussion:

The characteristics of this patient’s pain, the physical exam finding of a friction rub, and the EKG findings make the most likely diagnosis acute pericarditis.  Acute pericarditis is classified as chest pain for <6 weeks and can resemble cardiac ischemia.  It is often severe, retrosternal and left precordial, and referred to the neck, arms, or left shoulder.  Pain is often pleuritic but sometimes it is a steady, constricting pain that radiates into either arm.  Characteristically, pericardial pain is relieved by sitting up and leaning forward, something you would not see classically with AMI.  EKG changes in acute pericarditis will show diffuse, concave ST elevation across multiple leads, usually with PR depression early, then isometric T-waves progressing to ST depression.  This is in contrast to EKG changes in AMI, where you would expect more convex ST elevations present in anatomically contiguous leads with reciprocal changes.  Acute pericarditis is often accompanied by some degree of myocarditis causing serum biomarkers (troponin) to rise, termed myopericarditis.  These elevations, if they occur, are often quite modest compared to the elevations in AMI given the extensive EKG findings of ST-segment elevation.

A pericardial friction rub will be audible in anywhere from 50-85% of patients with acute pericarditis and is pathognomonic.  It will have a rasping, scratching, or grating quality.  The best way to hear it is to have the patient sit up and lean forward while placing your stethoscope over the lower sternal edge or apex.  It is heard best at end-expiration and won’t disappear with cessation of respirations as would a pleural rub.  More than 50% of rubs are triphasic and will include an atrial systolic rub preceding S1, a ventricular systolic rub occurring between S1 and S2, and an early diastolic rub occurring after S2.  It is not uncommon for patients with acute pericarditis to have a pericardial effusion and a pericardial friction rub can be heard at the start.  After enough effusion has accumulated the rub will disappear.  US is the best initial test which will show free fluid in the pericardial space.  The US from the case shows a small pericardial effusion near the right atrium.

Within the diagnosis of acute pericarditis it is necessary to determine an underlying cause.  Different etiologies of are grouped into infectious, noninfectious, or autoimmune.  Infectious etiologies include: viral (1-10% of cases, peaks in spring and fall); pyogenic (bacterial from direct pulmonary extension, hematogenous spread, myocardial abscess/endocarditis, post-surgery); tuberculous (suspect in high risk groups and developing countries).  Noninfectious etiologies include: post-MI (Dressler’s syndrome); uremia (usually secondary to ESRD or dialysis, will often have normal EKG because little epicardial inflammation occurs); neoplastic (both primary and metastatic); myxedematraumaticaortic dissectionsarcoidosis.  Autoimmune etiologies include: rheumatic feverSLERAsclerodermaWegener’s granulomatosisdrug-induced (procainamide, hydralazine, phenytoin, isoniazide, minoxidil, anticoagulants).  An idiopathic cause is responsible for 26-28% of acute pericarditis diagnoses and is the most common etiology given.  Many idiopathic cases are likely due to undiagnosed viral infections.

Pericardiocentesis is indicated in patients with effusions larger than 250 mL, effusions where the size increases despite intensive dialysis for 10-14 days, or effusions with evidence of tamponade.  The procedure can be performed with or without US guidance, although if it is available US should be used.  Before you perform the procedure you should ensure the patient has IV access, is receiving supplemental oxygen, is connected to a cardiac monitor, and continuous pulse oximetry.  If time permits you can place an NG tube to decompress the stomach and reduce the risk of a gastric perforation.  Either subxyphoid or left sternocostal margin approaches are most often used.  The procedure should be performed in a sterile fashion using a spinal needle connected to a syringe with the patient supine if there’s no US guidance, and at 30-45 degrees head elevation if there is.  When you’re not using US the needle should be inserted at a 45 degree angle to the abdominal wall and directed toward the left shoulder.  With US guidance, insert the needle at a 15-20 degree angle and direct it just under the rib cage toward the left should.  The needle is inserted ~5cm while applying negative pressure to the syringe until a return of fluid is noted or a change on the EKG strip is seen.  If the EKG pattern shows cardiac injury (ST segment elevation) then you have gone too far, are in direct contact with the myocardium, and should withdraw the needle until the pattern has returned to normal.  Withdraw as much fluid as possible.  Complications of this procedure are production of pericardial tamponade, laceration of a coronary artery, and induction of cardiac dysrhythmias.  Pericardial fluid should be analyzed for red and white blood cells, cytologic studies for cancer, microscopic studies, and cultures.  Fluid that returns as an exudate is likely from an inflammatory cause (most commonly viral).  Transudative fluid is seen in pressure-related conditions such as congestive heart failure.  If red blood cells are seen in the fluid this could represent a complication from acute rheumatic fever, post-cardiac injury, or renal failure (such as in uremic pericarditis).  If adenosine-deaminase activity is high, tuberculous pericarditis should be suspected.

Treatment includes empiric anti-inflammatory therapy for acute and recurrent pericarditis secondary to viral or idiopathic cases that are most commonly seen.  Currently, aspirin and NSAIDs are the mainstay of therapy.  An “attack dose” should be given for 1-2 weeks.  For aspirin this is 2-4 g/day, ibuprofen is 600mg TID, indomethacin is 50mg TID.  After the attack dose drug tapering may be considered.  Colchicine is added in autoimmune conditions and cases of recurrent pericarditis.  It interferes with WBC activity and is good for these cases.  Attack dose is not necessary with colchicines and 0.5mg BID can be given for 3 months if it’s the first attack or 6-12 months with recurrent attacks.  Corticosteroids should be reserved for difficult cases requiring multi-drug therapies and specific medical conditions.  This is because while they offer a fast remission, there is a higher risk of recurrences, prolonged course, and side effects with corticosteroids.  The corticosteroid of choice is prednisone and is dosed at 0.2-0.5 mg/kg/day.  Treatment length for aspirin, NSAIDs, and corticosteroids are usually until symptoms resolve and CRP normalizes.  If it is a uremic pericarditis aggressive dialysis is indicated and NSAID therapy will have little effect.  Corticosteroids can be used in these cases but typically don’t produce a response for 1-2 weeks.

Disposition depends on etiology.  For idiopathic acute pericarditis, high-dose NSAID therapy is the mainstay of treatment and should be continued for 1-4 weeks.  At a week’s time, however, if the current NSAID therapy is not working then the NSAID should be switched to another.  60% of patients will recover in 1 week and 80% by 3 weeks.  18% of patients can have recurrent pericarditis which warrants additional therapy with corticosteroids or colchicines.  Patients without clinically poor prognostic predictors (fever >38°C, subacute onset, immunosuppression, trauma, oral anticoagulant therapy, myopericarditis, severe pericardial effusion, cardiac tamponade) can be considered “low-risk cases” and assigned to outpatient treatment with high-dose oral NSAID therapy.  Otherwise, hospital admission is warranted with a consult to cardiology and any other subspecialties required (ex. In the case of uremic pericarditis you should also consult nephrology).

Clinical Pearls:

  • Suspect acute pericarditis if chest pain is sudden onset, relieved by sitting up and leaning forward, and is associated with a friction rub.
  • EKG in acute pericarditis will show diffuse ST-segment elevations with no reciprocal changes and PR depression early on.
  • Cardiac US should be performed in patients with acute pericarditis to rule out a pericardial effusion.
  • If a pericardial effusion is present, CXR may show a typical “water bottle” heart, where the heart is enlarged in the shape of a flask or water bottle.
  • Aspirin or NSAID therapies remain the mainstay of treatment for the majority of cases of acute pericarditis.  However, other etiologies should be investigated with each case and treated appropriately.

References:

Imazio M, Adler Y.  “Treatment with aspirin, NSAID, corticosteroids, and colchicines in acute and

recurrent pericarditis.”  Heart Fail Rev 4 Jun. 2012.  Pubmed.  Web.  16 Nov. 2012.

Imazio M, et al.  “Day-hospital treatment of acute pericarditis: a management program for outpatient

therapy.”  J Am Coll Cardiol.  2004; 43(6): 1042-46.

Longo D, et al.  “Acute Pericarditis.”  Harrison’s Online 18e: Part 10 Disorders of the Cardiovascular

System: Section 4 Disorders of the Heart: Chapter 239 Pericardial disease.  Web.  16 Nov. 2012.

Pericardial Disease (Pericarditis).  Rosen’s Emergency Medicine.  7th edition.  2010.  Print.

Spangler MD, Sean.  “Acute Pericarditis.”  Medscape Reference 10 Oct. 2011.  Medscape.  Web.  16 Nov.

2012.

Follow

Get every new post delivered to your Inbox.

Join 59 other followers