Intern Report 5.16

Case Presentation by Dr. Adam Bartsoff

CC: Right wrist pain

HPI: A 52 year old female presents to the emergency department accompanied by her daughter with the chief complaint of right wrist pain.  The patient states that approximately two hours ago she was walking down her basement stairs when she stumbled and fell the final two steps onto the basement floor.  Her fall was broken by an empty laundry basket and there was no LOC. Since the time of the fall, she complains of 10/10 throbbing pain in her right wrist and numbness and tingling in the fingers of her right hand. Additionally, her right wrist and forearm have become progressively more swollen.  Her wrist pain is exacerbated by movement of the joint and has not been alleviated by one extra strength Tylenol.

ROS: Negative except for that described in HPI and stress incontinence

PMH: Hypertension, Hyperlipedemia.

Meds: None

Allergies: PCN

PSH: Appendectomy, Cholecystectomy, C-section

Physical Exam:

Vitals: T  37.8, BP 165/100, HR 95, RR 20, SpO2 100% RA.

Gen: Healthy, well nourished appearing female. Cooperative. Sitting up in stretcher and holding right wrist with left hand.

HEENT: NC/AT. PERRLA, EOMI. Full ROM of Neck.  No C-spine tenderness/deformity.

NEURO:  Exam of right hand:

Light touch, pinprick and two point discrimination absent in palmer aspect of distal thumb, index and middle finger.  Sensation intact in ring finger, little finger and web space between thumb and index finger. Wrist extension intact, although painful.  Flexion of R MCP, PIP and DIP joints intact but painful.  Tinel’s sign weakly positive.

MSK: Obvious deformity of R wrist with dorsal angulation.  Decreased grip strength in right hand, 2/5. ROM of right wrist and digits elicits pain. Pain to palpation of right wrist and distal forearm. Symmetrical swelling of the R wrist and distal forearm.  Full ROM of elbow and shoulders bilaterally.

Skin: Mild erythema and swelling to R wrist with no tenting of skin or bony protrusion.

RESP: Clear to auscultation bilaterally with symmetrical chest expansion.

CVS: Tachycardic, S1, S2. No murmur, rubs or gallops. Radial pulses 2+ bilaterally.

Course in the ER:

The patient was given IV morphine for pain and radiographs of the right forearm were obtained.

Imaging:

imageinterpretation.co.uk

Questions:

1. What is the most frequent nerve damaged in this type of fracture?

(A) Median

(B) Radial

(C) Ulnar

(D) Axillary

(E) Vagus

2. Which of the following is a sign of instability in a Colles fracture?

(A) Intraarticular radiocarpal extension

(B) Distal radial ulnar joint extension

(C) Radial shortening

(D) Loss of radial inclination

(E) All of the above

3. Which of the following is true regarding the radial inclination?

(A) The correct radial inclination range is 15-20 deg

(B) Loss of radial inclination will increase the load across the Lunate

(C) The radial inclination is measured on the lateral radiograph

(D) A and B

4. What is a Smith’s fracture?

(A) An isolated fracture of the radial styloid process

(B) A reverse Colles fracture

(C) A fracture/dislocation of the volar rim of the radius

(D) An isolated fracture of the ulnar syloid process

 

Answers/Discussion

1) A

The radiograph demonstrates a Colles Fracture and the stem describes the classic presentation of an elderly person who falls on an outstretched hand.  The Colles fracture is a fracture of the distal radius with dorsal displacement and volar angulation.  It is the most common fracture of the wrist in adults and is especially more common in the elderly as they often have osteoporosis or osteopenia and are unstable ambulating. It was first described before the advent of radiology in 1814 by Dr. Abraham Colles who was an Irish surgeon. He defined a distal radial fracture as a “low-energy, extra-articular fracture to the distal radius in the elderly population.”

The radial, ulnar and median nerve’s are primarily responsible for sensation to the hand.  The sensory distribution of the hand is shown in figure 1.  The motor function of the hand is also primarily a function of the radial, ulnar and median nerves.  However, many of the motor functions of the hand are controlled by muscles originating in the forearm which are called extrinsic muscles. The muscles originating in the hand are called intrinsic muscles.  The radial nerve does not innervate an intrinsic

muscle. The radial nerve innervates forearm muscles responsible for extension of the wrist, thumb and MCP joints. The median nerve is responsible for thumb opposition and flexion of the thumb, index and middle fingers at PIP and DIP joints. Finally the ulnar nerve provides the most of the motor function of the intrinsic muscles of the hand. Ask the patient to hold a piece of paper between their index and middle fingers to evaluate ulnar nerve motor function.

Figure 1. Sensory Distribution of Hand (www.drtomaino.com)

For more on the normal hand exam see: Normal Hand Exam from practicalplasticsurgery.org

Neuropraxias can develop following a Colles fracture.  The most common nerve injured is the median nerve.  Because the median nerve travels through the carpal tunnel it is especially susceptible to compression and contusion as the wrist becomes more edematous following a fracture.  Patients may complain of paraesthesias in the distal palmer tips of the thumb, index and middle fingers.  Paralysis is usually transient if present. Patients may also develop ulnar and radial neuropraxias following a Colles fracture however they occur less frequently than median nerve injuries.

For anesthesia and analgesia during reduction of a Colles fracture the physician may perform a hematoma block. This is done by aspirating blood from the fracture hematoma and replacing it with 10-15 cc of 1% lidocaine. Allow approximately 10 minutes for proper anesthesia of the nerve fibers surrounding the periosteum and soft tissue. The efficacy of a hematoma block is best acutely and diminishes with time as the hematoma coagulates.

2) E

Intraarticular radiocarpal extension, distal radial ulnar joint extension, radial shorting and loss of radial inclination are all radiographic signs of instability and are high risk for patients to develop secondary displacement following primary reduction.

Indications or Instability:

  • > 10 degree loss of radial inclination
  • > 5 mm of axial radial shortening
  • > 2 mm of articular incongruity
  • Comminution of cortex across the midaxial line on lateral xray
  • Comminution of dorsal and palmer cortices
  • Irreducible fracture
  • Loss of reduction at follow up

Articular congruity is very important so that patients do not develop post traumatic arthritis of the wrist.

3) B

The radial height, inclination and tilt are three important measurements when interpreting radiographs of the forearm following a Colles fracture.  The radial height is measured on the PA radiograph and is the distance between two lines perpendicular to the long axis of the radius.  The first line is drawn to intersect the distal articular surface of the ulnar head and the second line is drawn at the distal tip of the radial styloid.  The average radial height is approximately 10-13 mm. See Figure 2.

Radial Height

Figure 2

Radial inclination is also measured on the PA radiograph.  Radial inclination is the angle between one line drawn between the radial styloid and the ulnar distal radius.  The second line is drawn perpendicular to the long axis of the radius. The average radial inclination is approximately 21 to 25 degrees.  Loss of radial inclination will result in increase load on the lunate complications in the future including post traumatic arthritis and potentially an operation.

Radial Inclination

Figure 3

Radial tilt is measured on the lateral radiograph.  It is the angle between a line that runs along the distal radial articular surface and the line perpendicular to the long axis of the radius.  The normal volar tilt is 11 degrees but has a range of 2-20 degrees.  See Figure 4.

Radial Tilt

Figure 4

4) B

A Smith’s fracture is also known as a reverse Colles fracture and is often mislabeled as a Colles fracture.  In a Smith’s fracture, the distal radius is fractured and the distal fragment is displaced volar instead of dorsal as in a Colles fracture.  This type of fracture is much more uncommon and is referred as a “garden spade” deformity. Likewise, a Colles fracture is sometimes referred to as “silver fork” deformity.

An isolated fracture of the radial styloid process is called a chauffeur’s fracture and is often associated with injury to the scapholunate ligament.  This occurs from tension forces sustained during ulnar deviation and suppination of the wrist. The name is derived from chauffeurs in previous eras who would have to start a car by hand cranking it.  When the car would backfire, the crank would violently snap back into the chauffer’s palm and produce the characteristic fracture.

A fracture/dislocation of the volar rim of the radius is known as a Barton’s fracture, specifically a volar Barton’s fracture.  This results from high velocity impact across the articular surface of radiocarpal joint with the wrist in volar flexion at the moment of impact.  Radiographs demonstrate a wedge-shaped articular fragment sheared off the volar surface of the radius and displaced volarly.  These fractures have a high tendency for redislocation and often require an operation.

An isolated fracture of the ulnar styloid process is rare and is often clinically insignificant.  However, fractures of the ulnar styloid process are often associated with fractures of the radius.

References:

Rosen’s Emergency Medicine. 7th editon. Page 467-477.

www.radiologyassistant.nl

Altizer, Linda L. Colles’ Fracture, Orthopaedic Nursing, March/April 2008

Figure 1. Sensory Distribution of Hand. www.drtomaino.com.

Normal Hand Exam practicalplasticsurgery.org

Senior Report 5.15

Case Presentation by Dr. Shereaf Walid

CHIEF COMPLAINT(S): Chest pain.

HISTORY OF PRESENT ILLNESS:

A 33-year-old obese African American female presents with right-sided pleuritic chest pain that started yesterday afternoon suddenly while she was walking at work.  She works a clerical job where she sits down at a desk for the majority of the day; however, she says she does not stay seated for long intervals, as her work requires her to do a lot of walking around the office.  The pleuritic chest pain is maximum at end inspiration.  She feels the pain on the right side of her chest around the anterior axillary line of the chest wall.  The pain radiates to her neck, below her axilla, and in the lateral right rib/chest wall area.  The pain seems worst on her right side below the axilla in the mid-axillary line near the costal margin.  The pain is reproducible by taking a deep breath in, and since it started, she has been taking shallow breaths in to reduce the pain.  The discomfort is also pruritic, but she notes no rash.  She appears to be splinting upon deep inspiration.  She denies any leg swelling or pain and no recent surgery.  No fevers or dyspnea on exertion.  She does not take any oral contraceptive pills.  She has had no trauma to the chest wall.  This pain episode is not associated with any nausea, vomiting or diaphoresis.  She has never experienced pain of this character in the past.  No personal history of hypercoagulable disorders, or family history of blood clots.

REVIEW OF SYSTEMS:

CONSTITUTIONAL:  No recent weight loss.

EYES:  No double vision, itching, pain or discharge.

ENMT:  No ear infection, epistaxis or current dental problems.

CARDIOVASCULAR:  No palpitations.

RESPIRATORY:  Right-sided chest pain that is pleuritic since yesterday.

GASTROINTESTINAL:  No recurrent pain, diarrhea or bloody stools.

GENITOURINARY:  No burning or frequency on urination.

MUSCULOSKELETAL:  No muscle pain or weakness.

NEURO:  No loss of consciousness, speech or balance problems.

SKIN:  No rashes.

PAST MEDICAL, FAMILY, AND(OR) SOCIAL HISTORY:

PRIMARY CARE PHYSICIAN:  Dr. XXXXX

PAST MEDICAL HISTORY:  Negative for hypertension, diabetes or hypercholesterolemia.

PAST SURGICAL HISTORY:  Tubal ligation.

MEDICATIONS:  None.

ALLERGIES:  Shellfish.

LAST MENSTRUAL PERIOD:  Two weeks ago.

FAMILY HISTORY:  Hypertension, diabetes.

SOCIAL HISTORY:  Positive for tobacco use and occasional alcohol use, negative for any illicit or IV drug use.

EXAMINATION OF ORGAN SYSTEMS-BODY AREAS:

VITAL SIGNS:  On presentation blood pressure 154/79, heart rate is 92, respiratory rate is 20, oral temperature is 36.9, SaO2 100% on room air.

CONSTITUTIONAL:  Obese female in no apparent distress but anxious.  She is taking shallow quick breaths.  Her respiratory rate seems to be only mildly elevated, but for the most part she is sitting comfortably and she speaks in complete sentences.  No tripoding.

PSYCHIATRIC:  A and O x3.  Judgment is sound.

HEAD:  Normocephalic, atraumatic.  No tenderness to palpation.

EYES:  Pupils are equal, round and reactive to light and accommodation.  Extraocular movements are grossly intact.  No conjunctival pallor.  Sclerae anicteric.

ENMT:  Mucous membranes are moist.

NECK:  Supple.  No JVD.  No carotid bruits.  No lymphadenopathy.

CARDIOVASCULAR:  S1, S2.  Regular rate and rhythm.  No murmurs, rubs or gallops.

RESPIRATORY:  Clear to auscultation bilaterally.  No wheezes, rhonchi or rales.  Decreased air entry due to shallow respirations.  No tenderness anywhere over the chest wall.  No palpable crepitus over the chest wall or the neck.

GASTROINTESTINAL:  Abdomen is soft, nontender, nondistended.

MUSCULOSKELETAL:  Strength is 5/5 proximally and distally in both the upper and lower extremities.  No palpable cords in the lower extremities.  Gastrocnemius diameter is equal bilaterally.  No swelling.  No dependent edema.  2+ dorsalis pedis pulses bilaterally.

SKIN:  No acute rashes or lesions.

NEURO:  Normal speech and normal gait.

An ECG and Chest X-Ray were obtained and are shown below:

Question 1:

What is the most specific chest X-ray finding seen in patients with diagnosed pulmonary embolism?

a.   cardiomegaly

b.   elevated hemidiaphragm

c.   hampton’s hump

d.   plate-like atelectasis

e.   small pleural effusion

Question 2:

What is the patient’s Well’s score for pulmonary embolism?

a.  0

b.  1

c.  2

d.  3

e.  4

Question 3:

Which of the following interventions is the most reasonable next step for this patient?

a.  cat scan of the thorax with intravenous contrast

b.  draw blood cultures and start the patient on intravenous antibiotics for community acquired pneumonia

c.  obtain a d-dimer assay

d.  start the patient on PO antibiotics, an incentive spirometer and arrange close outpatient follow-up

e.  ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan due to the patient’s shellfish allergy, which puts her at risk for an allergic reaction to iodinated radiocontrast dye

 

 

Answers:

1.  c

2.  d

3.  c

 

This case is of an actual patient seen in the ED.  The patient has a pulmonary embolism.  This patient presents with no traditional risk factors for PE, although several studies quote obesity as an indirect risk factor due to relative immobility and increased risk for lower extremity DVT.  She has significant pleuritic chest pain and splinting, yet her oxygen saturation is 100%.  An ECG and CXR are indicated in the ED as initial screening tests in evaluating a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism due to being relatively inexpensive and accessible, and to assess for other potential causes.  The American College of Radiology recommends chest radiography as the most appropriate study for ruling out other causes of chest pain in patients with suspected pulmonary embolism.

The ECG provided in this case shows normal sinus rhythm.  At triage the patients HR was 92.  The most common ECG finding in patients with confirmed pulmonary embolism is sinus tachycardia.  It is important to note that this patient’s heart rate is usually in the 70s, this data was not provided in the case, but was ascertained by reviewing the electronic medical record.  Hence, her relative tachycardia is an important sign to recognize and consider in formulating a differential diagnosis. The finding of S1 Q3 T3 is nonspecific and insensitive in the absence of clinical suspicion for pulmonary embolism. Classic findings of right heart strain and acute cor pulmonale include tall, peaked P waves in lead II (P pulmonale); right axis deviation; right bundle-branch block; presence of an S1 Q3 T3 pattern; or atrial fibrillation. Unfortunately, only 20% of patients with proven pulmonary embolism have any of these classic electrocardiographic abnormalities. If electrocardiographic abnormalities are present, they may be suggestive of pulmonary embolism, but the absence of such abnormalities has no significant predictive value.  Some studies have shown that T wave inversions in anterior precordial and inferior leads is the most specific ECG finding in patients with confirmed pulmonary embolism.

The Chest X-ray shown in this case was extremely valuable in this patient’s evaluation and is often under-appreciated and under-utilized.  It was initially read as negative by radiology, however, if you examine closely there are findings that are suggestive of pulmonary embolism in the correct clinical context.  Although CXR cannot establish the diagnosis of PE, it has several useful roles in patients suspected of having a PE.  When examining radiographs, the following findings should be sought.

First, the classic finding is a relatively normal chest radiograph in a patient in “dire straights”.  However, this “classic” teaching is not true, as observations from the PIOPED and PIOPED II studies and several others have shown that a normal CXR is found in only 12-18% of patients with confirmed pulmonary embolism.  So keep in mind that an apparent “normal” CXR is suggestive of PE in that it can lower the suspicion of other disorders such as pneumothorax, pulmonary edema or pneumonia.  Next, there are radiographic abnormalities seen in some cases of PE, although these are non-specific, such as small pleural effusion, plate-like atelectasis, or elevation of a hemidiaphragm.  Occasionally, there are radiographic findings that are characteristic of PE, although they may be subtle and difficult to identify with certainty.  Occlusion of a large pulmonary artery can produce localized oligemia (which looks like diminished lung markings in the region supplied by that vessel) and the occluded pulmonary artery may be dilated proximally due to a large intraluminal thrombus and then taper abruptly (the knuckle sign).  Seen together, localized oligemia and a dilated pulmonary artery with abrupt cut-off are termed the Westermark sign.  Sometimes, you’ll see dilation of the contralateral pulmonary artery because the affected pulmonary artery contains an embolism that is so massive that nearly all the blood flow is directed to the contralateral pulmonary artery.  This is called a “reversed Westermark sign”.

You should note that the chest x-ray in this case is a poor inspiratory film.  Never overlook this as studies that you may be basing your findings on will exclude inadequate films in their data analysis, hence the utility of searching for specific or sensitive findings of pathology may fail before you have even started looking.  With that in mind, if you look closely at the right costophrenic angle on the PA view of the CXR, you’ll notice that the angle is blunted when compared to the left side.  There is clearly a hazy opacity there.  Additionally, there appears to be an elevated right hemidiaphragm, a non-specific finding that is sometimes found in cases of PE, but is neither sensitive nor specific.  It should be noted that the right hemidiaphragm is normally elevated relative to the left due to the liver and this can make the distinction between normal and abnormal difficult.  In this case, the elevated right hemidiaphragm is easier to appreciate on the lateral view, as with most cases that show this finding.  Now after assessing the lateral CXR, you can follow the left and right hemidiaphragmatic lines back to the posterior rib margins near their insertion sites.  You can also clearly see the costophrenic sulcus made by these structures posteriorly.  The “haziness” seen on the PA view is probably anteriorly located, as suggested by the lateral view, or you could argue that its location is obscured (again, this is equivocal possibly due to the inadequate film).  One thing you can definitely conclude is that the haziness seen on the PA view is not a pleural effusion, or else it would have blunted the most dependent area of the lung, the posterior costophrenic sulcus.  This should raise the suspicion of a “Hampton’s Hump.”

In some cases of PE, there is an area of focal airspace filling.  This represents focal intraparenchymal hemorrhage due to ischemia or infarction of lung tissue that occurs distal to a large embolus.  The area of hemorrhage is typically located at the lung periphery and appears as a wedge-shaped pleural-based opacity with its apex pointing toward the lung hilum.  This has been termed “reversible infarction” because it clears rapidly over several days, reducing in size progressively without residual scarring.  This focal area is called a Hampton’s Hump and should be suspected in this patient.  Also note that the elevated right hemidiaphragm is much easier to appreciate on the lateral CXR.  Finally, non-specific findings radiographic findings in PE are:  “normal”, small pleural effusion, plate-like atelectasis and elevated hemidiaphragm.  Specific abnormalities are the Westermark sign and Hampton’s hump, hence the answer to question 1 is “c”.

 

Now after obtaining the ECG and CXR the most reasonable next step in the patient work-up should be to evaluate the patient’s pre-test probability for a pulmonary embolism. Evidence-based literature supports the practice of determining the clinical probability of pulmonary embolism before proceeding with testing. One study assessed the performance of 4 clinical decision rules in addition to d-dimer testing to exclude acute PE. All 4 rules – Wells rule, simplified Wells rule, revised Geneva score, and simplified revised Geneva score, showed similar performance for excluding acute PE when combined with a normal d-dimer result.  Several studies have validated the use of the Wells criteria for pulmonary embolism in the ED setting.  The Wells scoring system is as follows:

Hence, based on this scoring system what would your score be?  There are no clinical signs of DVT.  On exam, the patient’s gastrocnemius diameter is equal without palpable cords, something that should be clearly documented in all cases of suspected pulmonary embolism.  The heart rate is less than 100 bpm.  There is no history of immobilization.  Please note that to qualify for “history of immobilization” according to Wells, and Jeff Kline’s PERC score, one must have uninterrupted immobility in a knees-flexed position for 6 consecutive hours.  So if the patient gets up to stretch their legs half way through a trans-Atlantic flight there is no history of immobilization as per these scoring systems.  However, these scoring systems are not, under any circumstance, designed to replace clinical “gestault”, but to supplement it.  In other words, never abandon your clinical suspicion in lieu of a clinical scoring system.  The patient has no objectively diagnosed PE or DVT.  There is no history of hemoptysis or active malignancy.  Also, note that prior malignancy is not a risk factor (another point of confusion).  The Wells score includes malignancy with treatment within 6 months because only active malignancy is a risk factor, not remission.  Finally, is PE the #1 diagnosis or equally likely?  If you answer no for this then your Wells score is zero.  If you answer yes then it is 3.  My Wells score on this patient was 3.  If you are not suspecting PE in this patient, then what is the more likely diagnosis?  Hence, the answer to question 2 is “d”.  More on this later if you answered zero.

Upon calculating a Wells score of 3, we now have to decide what to do with this data.  In a seminal study by Jeff Kline he used a test threshold formula to derive the test threshold for PE to be 1.8% (this is essentially the derivation of the PERC rule).  What this means is that when the pre-test probability for PE is less than 1.8% then pursuing testing is more likely to do more harm than good (ie. the false positives and potential harm inflicted by treatment outweighs treatment of true positives).  During grand rounds I will discuss the concept of test threshold and treatment threshold more thoroughly.  For now, recognize that for every test there is a test threshold, below which, testing does more harm than good.  And, on the other end of the spectrum, there is a treatment threshold, above which testing does more harm than good (ie. your pre-test probability is so high that a negative d-dimer has poor negative predictive value and you should go straight to CT/ treatment).  The patients that fall between the test threshold and the treatment threshold are the ones where d-dimer should be used.

There are 3 studies that I will comment on at this point, two of which are cited on MD-calc (the website from which the above figure was obtained).  The first is “Excluding pulmonary embolism at the bedside without diagnostic imaging: management of patients with suspected pulmonary embolism presenting to the ED by using a simple clinical model and d-dimer.”  Wells PS et al.  Ann Intern Med. 2001.  In this study, low risk patients, defined as Wells score of 0-2 had a 1.3% risk of pulmonary embolism, hence, they were below the testing threshold which means that testing is more likely to do harm than good.  The second study is “Prospective validation of Wells Criteria in the evaluation of patients with suspected pulmonary embolism.”  Wolf SJ et al.  Ann Emerg Med. 2004.  In this study, low risk patients, also defined as Wells score of 0-2 had a 1.7% risk of pulmonary embolism, also below the testing threshold indicating that testing is more likely to do harm than good.  Finally, in one of the most impressive studies on PE decision rules, “Effectiveness of managing suspected PE using an algorithm combining clinical probability, d-dimer testing, and CT.” Christopher Study Investigators. JAMA, 2006, in a large ED patient population this impact study tested the validity of using d-dimer on patients with Wells scores of 3 or 4 and found it to be safe.  Remarkably, 6 months later, there were less adverse outcomes in using d-dimer in Wells ≤ 4 than CT scan.  Additionally, 15% of the patients studied were inpatient, a population known to be at higher risk than those seen in the ED, and the data, in the context of PE/DVT studies was compelling.  This study used a simplified decision tree: if Wells ≤ 4 use d-dimer; if > 4 use CT.  For more details, read the article.

The mistake often made with d-dimer is that it’s used on the wrong population (ie. those below the testing threshold = Wells 0-2).  If you’re doing this, you are practicing dangerous medicine.  What the Christopher study showed was that our collective “gestault” is greatly skewed and we teach the application of d-dimer grossly incorrectly.  If you look at the table for Wells score for PE, if a patient presents with flu-like symptoms but they have a history of DVT, hemoptysis and are currently being treated for cancer, then their Wells score is 4 and you should order a d-dimer.  Let me repeat this validated point: a patient with history of DVT, hemoptysis and active cancer should still get a D-dimer.  And here is the take home point:  this is what d-dimer was designed for.  There are large, validated studies that show that doing less is safer than doing more.  Additionally, from a medico-legal standpoint, it is my belief and practice that the Christopher study should be mentioned in your dictation or macro for PE and is so easily defensible as to be a powerful enough deterrent to keep litigation at bay.  In other words, a prosecuting attorney will be hard pressed to take a case with this referenced in the patient’s chart.  Let’s never forget that we don’t practice medicine for attorneys, we practice for patients.  However, as we all know, we don’t practice in a vacuum.

Finally, the answer to question 3 is “c”.  Initially, my Wells score was zero (was I right?).  After reviewing the CXR, initially read by radiology as negative, I noted a Hampton’s hump (specific, relatively), not a pleural effusion, and an elevated right hemidiaphragm (non-specific).  Since the patient’s clinical presentation did not fit pneumonia, I concluded that this was more likely a Hampton’s hump than a pneumonic infiltrate.  I re-calculated her Wells score to be 3, ordered a d-dimer, electrolytes and gave her 1L of normal saline for renal protection in case the d-dimer came back positive.  Should I have just ordered a serum creatinine?  As an aside, regarding the allergic cross-reaction of shellfish and radio-iodinated contrast dye, the literature has shown that this is a fallacy.  To date, I have not found any literature to support this and there is a robust amount of literature to refute this correlation.  Please feel free to read the following review,  “The relationship of radiocontrast, iodine, and seafood allergies: a medical myth exposed.”  Schabelman E, Witting M. J Emerg Med. 2010 Nov; 39(5):701-7.

The d-dimer came back elevated at 1.33. CT scan – PE protocol was ordered and was reported by radiology as, “positive for pulmonary emboli in the superior segment of the right lower lobe pulmonary artery with associated pulmonary infarction and in a posterior basilar branch of the right lower lobe pulmonary artery.  There is also a triangle shaped airspace opacity in the anterior aspect of the right upper lobe without definite associated pulmonary embolus.  This finding could represent a focal area of atelectasis.”  The lung window of the CT scan is found below, clearly showing the associated pulmonary infarct, or Hampton’s hump.

 

 

“Therefore, at this point we sent a set of coagulation studies on the patient and started the patient on fondaparinux and called to have the patient admitted.  Results of the CT PE protocol were explained to the patient and the reason for admission has also been explained to her.  She is obviously agreeable to the necessity of this admission.”  In the near future, the validity of the last sentence of the quoted dictation will be challenged, but for now all confirmed pulmonary embolisms are to be admitted.  Warfarin was also appropriately started in the ED and the patient was discharged within 48 hours.  Outpatient follow-up was arranged and a repeat CXR showed resolution of the pulmonary infarct with anticoagulation rather than antibiotics further confirming the suspicion of a Hampton’s hump.  Six months out the patient had no recurrences and has made lifestyle modifications.  As of one month ago the patient continues to do well and, as per her routine, frequently flexes her gastrocnemius muscles while working at her desk.

 

Intern Report 5.14

Case Presentation by Dr. Jamie Kenney

HPI: 5 year old male presents to the ED complaining of a rash.  According to his parents he recently returned home from visiting his grandparents in Tennessee and has been complaining of “not feeling well” for the 4 days.  He has had a decreased appetite with nausea and vomited 3 times yesterday.  He is also complaining of feeling “hot” but his parents did not take his temperature at home.  They first noticed the rash yesterday evening that began on his hands and feet and has since spread to his abdomen.  Rash does not itch, no blistering or pus formation.  He was given Tylenol at home with no relief.  Patient is also complaining of a severe headache 9/10, pulsating, does not radiate to neck.  No one else in the family has similar symptoms.

Review of Systems:

Constitutional: Positive for “feeling hot” and fatigued

Head: Negative for neck pain, positive for headache

Eyes: Negative for redness, pain or discharge

ENT: Negative for runny nose, ear pain or sore throat

Cardiovascular: Negative for palpitations or chest pain

Lungs: Negative for shortness of breath or cough

Gastrointestinal: Positive for nausea/vomiting and abdominal pain

Musculoskeletal: Positive for body aches and swelling, negative for joint deformities

Skin: Positive for rash, no ulcers or lesions

Neurologic: Negative for numbness or tingling

Past Family, Medical and Social History

Medical Hx: Asthma

Surgical Hx: None

Medications: Albuterol

Allergies: NKDA

Examination of Organ Systems and Body Areas

VS: BP 90/56 HR115 RR14 Temp 40.1 Pulse ox 98% on room air

General: Patient is well nourished, in mild distress.  He is lying on the stretcher in the fetal position and appears uncomfortable.

HEENT: NC/AT, EOMI, PERRLA, non-icteric, neck supple no meningeal signs

Mouth: Dry mucus membranes, no lesions or vesicles

Cardiovascular: S1/S2, tachycardic, no m/r/g

Respiratory: CTABL, no wheezing or rhonci

Gastrointestinal:  Hyper-active bowel sounds, TTP diffusely, hepatomegaly, no masses, no rebounding or guarding

Musculoskeletal: NROM, TTP over all four extremities.  No cyanosis, clubbing.  Subtle non-pitting edema of lower extremities.

Skin: Diffuse palpable purpura located over all four extremities including the palms and soles.  Rash is non-blanching, non-vesicular and symmetric.  (See Images Below)

Neurologic:  Patient is awake, oriented x 3.  Not interactive but responds appropriately to all questions.  Strength 5/5 in upper extremities, 4/5 in lower extremities. Normal finger to nose and heel to shin.  Reflexes +2 and symmetric bilaterally.  Gait was normal.

Laboratory Values

WBC: 8 Hgb: 10.2 Hct: 35 Plt: 90

Na: 124 K 3.8 HCO2: 24 Cl: 102 BUN 18 Cr 0.9

INR: 2.0  PT: 18 PTT: 60

AST: 100 ALT: 180

IMAGES:

 

 

QUESTIONS:

1) What is the Diagnosis?

2) When does the rash typically appear?

  1. Within 24hrs of exposure
  2. Immediately after the fever breaks
  3. One to two weeks after exposure
  4. On the third to fifth febrile day

3) Treatment for this patient consists of:

  1. Doxycycline PO 2.2mg/kg Q12 hrs
  2. Vancomycin/Cefepime pharmacy to dose
  3. Doxycycline IV 100mg BID
  4. Ampicillin/Sublactam IV 3g Q6hrs

DISCUSSION 

This patient has Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF).  RMSF is defined as an acute, febrile, systemic tick-borne illness caused by Rickettsia rickettsii that can be found in North, South and Central America.  Within the United States the most frequent occurrences of RMSF occur in Oklahoma, North Carolina, South Carolina, Tennessee and Pennsylvania (hence the hint with Blue Ridge Mountains).  The history of RMSF dates back to the late 1800’s and was known by the White settlers as “black measles.”  Within the past decade the number of reported cases has more than tripled, especially in suburban areas.  RMSF ranges in clinical severity from a subclinical illness to a fulminant disease with vascular collapse.  There are approximately 40 deaths per year in the United States with the most at risk age groups being children younger than 10 years and adults over 60 years old.

Rickettsia rickettsii are obligate intracellular bacteria that can invade both the nucleus as well as the cytoplasm.  Ticks are the vectors for RMSF with the American Dog Tick, Dermacentor variabilis and the Rocky Mountain Wood Tick, Dermacentor andersoni being the most common species within the United States.  Ticks will feed on any warm blooded mammal transporting the organism from animals to humans.  After R. rickettsii enters the host the organisms it will invade and multiply in the vascular endothelial cells.  They continue to invade into deeper tissues disrupting vessel walls and infecting vascular smooth muscle.  The organisms are able to move from cell to cell by actin-based motility.  Their invasion causes the release of tissue plasminogen activator and von Willebrand factor further leading to microhemorrhage, microthrombus formation, and increased vascular permeability.  These extensive vascular lesions are what cause most of the features associated with RMSF.  Increased small-vessel permeability results in hypotension, edema and increased extravascular fluid space.

Clinical features of RMSF are initially vague and it is hard to make the diagnoses without a high index of suspicion.  The “common” triad is fever, rash and known tick bite.  However it is rare that emergency physicians will have all three and only 3-18% of all cases actually have the triad.  Early symptoms include sudden onset of fever, severe headache, nausea, vomiting and myalgias.  The rash, present in 88% of patients with RMSF is the most distinctive feature of the disease.  It normally appears on the 3rd to 5th febrile day.  Vasculitis and changes in vessel permeability cause the early features of the rash and subsequent petechial and hemorrhagic lesions are secondary to thrombocytopenia.  The rash typically starts on the wrist and ankles then begins to spread centripetally to the trunk within 6-12 hours.  One unique feature of the rash is its presence on the palms and soles (please refer to pictures above).  Initally the rash consists of small red macules that worsen when a warm compress is applied.  After 2-3 days it becomes maculopapular and no longer blanches with pressure.  Without the appropriate treatment the lesions will coalesce to form large areas of ecchymosis that eventually slough off and form indolent ulcers.

RMSF has the potential to spread rapidly throughout the body if not treated properly.  As R. rickettsii continues to invade the vasculature it can lead to some life threatening conditions such as myocarditis, arrythmias, interstitial pneumonitis, hepatosplenomegaly and several neurologic manifestations ranging from headache to seizures and coma.

Diagnosis in the emergency department relies heavily on physicians being aware of the prominence of the disease within their region.  Clinic evidence is the mainstay of diagnosis within the ED.  Initial laboratory testing may show some non-specific abnormalities such as hyponatremia, prolonged PT/PTT, thrompocytopenia and elevation of LFTs if hepatomegaly is present.  A definitive diagnosis requires positive results on one or more of the following tests: serologic serum antibody titer reactive with R. rickettsii, skin biopsy or direct isolations and identification of the organism in a cell culture.

Treatment consists of supportive care and antibiotic therapy.  Antibiotic therapy is most effective when given within the early stages of the disease; when the rash first appears or prior to that.  Doxycycline is regarded as the therapeutic agent of choice.  The dosing for adults is 100mg BID PO/IV and for children (<45kg) 2.2mg/kg PO Q12hrs.  Chloramphenicol should be used for patient whom are known to be allergic to tetracyclines and for pregnant women unless they are near term.  Therapy should last for 7-10 days or until the patient is afebrile for 2-5 days.  Steroids are a controversial topic and are currently not recommended.  Without appropriate antibiotic treatment fatality rates rise to 25% from 5%.

All cases of RMSF should be reported to the CDC.

References:  Rosen’s Emergency Medicine 7th Edition, Tintinalli’s Emergency Medicine 7th Edition and www.dermatlas.jhmi.edu (pictures)

Senior Report 5.13

Case Presentation by Dr. Aimee Nefcy

CHIEF COMPLAINT:

“I feel so weak.”

HISTORY OF PRESENT ILLNESS:

This 20-year-old male comes into the emergency department brought in by his mother.  She states that he was at St. John’s Hospital 1 week ago and he went there because he was having a hard time breathing associated with chest pain, which has been going on for about 2 weeks.  They thought he was having an asthma exacerbation.  She has some paperwork, which showed that he had a CT scan for PE that was negative and he had laboratory testing which apparently ruled out lupus.  This was done because he had a rash across his face which they told her was from lupus.  She says that he has just not been getting better.  She noticed that he is complaining of profound weakness and pain in his chest, back, shoulders and thighs, which is kind of an achy, constant, non-pleuritic pain in his muscles.  He is complaining of having no strength.  They discharged him home on a medrol dose pack, which she has been giving to him appropriately.  She says nothing seems to be helping him.  He has only been getting worse and now he is complaining of so much of a hard time breathing that she is just sure that he is having an asthma flare-up, so that is why she brought him to the emergency department at this time.  His shortness of breath is constant and non-exertional, without exacerbating or relieving factors.  The patient himself is not providing any history at this time, except to say that he is too weak to talk or cooperate.

REVIEW OF SYSTEMS:

CONSTITUTIONAL:  Negative for fever and positive for chills.

EYES:  Negative for redness or discharge.

ENT:  Negative for runny nose or sore throat.

CARDIOVASCULAR:  Positive for chest pain and dizziness.

RESPIRATORY:  Positive for shortness of breath as noted above and negative for cough.

GASTROINTESTINAL:  Negative for vomiting or diarrhea.

GENITOURINARY:  Negative for changes in urination or dysuria.

MUSCULOSKELETAL:  Positive for diffuse muscle aches and negative for swelling or deformity.

SKIN:  Negative for lesions and is positive for rash around his eyes for 2 months.

NEUROLOGIC:  Negative for numbness and positive for global weakness.

PAST MEDICAL, FAMILY, AND SOCIAL HISTORY:

PAST MEDICAL HISTORY:  Mom reports that he had asthma as a child, but has not had to use an inhaler in many years.

PAST SURGICAL HISTORY:  No surgeries.

MEDICATIONS:  Prednisone and a multivitamin as prescribed by St. John’s 1 week ago.

ALLERGIES:  NO KNOWN DRUG ALLERGIES.

FAMILY HISTORY:  Significant for asthma and allergies.

SOCIAL HISTORY:  The patient used to smoke cigarettes.  He smokes marijuana occasionally.  He denies any current tobacco or alcohol use.

 

EXAMINATION OF ORGAN SYSTEMS-BODY AREAS:

VITAL SIGNS:  Blood pressure is 116/80, heart rate 115, respiratory rate 26, temperature 36.2, pulse ox 99% on room air.

GENERAL:  This is a well-nourished, well-developed African-American male appearing his stated age.  He is in no acute distress.  He is lying on the stretcher not moving with his eyes closed and his arms at his sides, and appears ill and fatigued.

PSYCHIATRIC:  The patient is sleepy, but answers questions appropriately.  He is oriented x3.  He responds to voice.  He is basically refusing to speak or cooperate with the exam, saying over and over “I’m too weak,” despite encouragement from staff and mother; history was obtained from his mother.

HEENT:  Head is normocephalic, atraumatic.  Pupils were equal, round, and reactive to light.  Extraocular muscles were intact.  There is no conjunctival pallor or scleral icterus.  The patient did have diffuse patchy hyperpigmented rash in the periorbital area and involving the lower portion of his forehead, above both eyes, and sparing the eyelids and the nose but extending down his cheeks laterally on both sides.  It was irregular and asymmetric.  It was not erythematous.  It was flat and nonpalpable.  No other abnormalities were noted.

MOUTH:  Mucous membranes moist without signs of oral ulcerations.

THROAT:  No erythema or exudates.

NECK:  Supple with no lymphadenopathy or thyromegaly.

CARDIOVASCULAR:  Regular rhythm.  Tachycardia.  S1 and S2 heard.  No murmurs, rubs, or gallops.  Peripheral pulses were 2+ and symmetric bilaterally.

RESPIRATORY:  The patient was having mild tachypnea with rapid shallow breathing.  He was making a poor respiratory effort.  He was not using accessory muscles or having any retractions.  On auscultation he had decreased air entry bilaterally.  There were no wheezes, crackles, or rhonchi.  Again, he had poor effort.

GASTROINTESTINAL:  Positive bowel sounds.  Abdomen is soft, nontender, nondistended.  No masses or organomegaly.

MUSCULOSKELETAL:  Limbs were atraumatic and nontender.  No cyanosis, clubbing, or edema.

SKIN:  Warm and dry without any lesions.  There were no other rashes except as noted above.  Of note, the skin of his hands was very rough and dry.

NEUROLOGIC:  There was no facial asymmetry or dysarthria.  Muscle strength was 4/5 distally in all four extremities, but was 3/5 proximally.  The patient was unwilling or unable to lift up his arms at the shoulder, but was able to move his arms at the elbow and able to move his feet and bend his legs, but was unable to lift his legs against gravity.  He was so profoundly weak that he was unable to even use the railings of the stretcher to sit up and we actually had to hold him up, which was quite difficult as he was very heavy and floppy.  Sensation was intact to light touch throughout all four extremities and was symmetric bilaterally.  The patient was unable to participate with testing for pronator drift or finger-to-nose.  He had 1+ reflexes that were symmetric bilaterally.  He had diffuse hypotonia of his muscles with no rigidity or clonus. Remainder of the neurologic exam could not be performed as the patient really was not cooperating.

Laboratory values

Na 141

K 3.9

Cl 103

HCO3 27

AG 11

Glucose 49

BUN 16

Cr 1.0

Ca 9.6

Mg 2.2

Phos 2.3

ALT 39

AST 53

CPK 447

WBC 4.1

Hgb 14.3

Hcrt 41.6

PLT 244

Albumin 3.9

TSH 2.563

CRP <2.90

ESR 34

ANA Negative

ENA Panel Negative

U/A Tr Ket, Tr Prot, SpGrav 1.020, otherwise negative

CXR: unremarkable.

For his hypoglycemia, the patient received an ampoule of D50, after which his Accucheck improved to 99, but he did not experience any improvement in his symptoms of weakness and shortness of breath.

Questions:

1)     Based on the information above, what is the patient’s most likely diagnosis?

2)     What diagnostic test would be most helpful in confirming the diagnosis?

  • a) Complement levels
  • b) CT scan of the chest
  • c) EKG
  • d) Muscle biopsy
  • e) The diagnosis is clinical

3)     What is the initial treatment of choice for this condition?

  • a) Glucocorticoids
  • b) Hydroxychloroquine
  • c) Immunosuppressants
  • d) IVIG
  • e) Plasmapheresis

ANSWERS:

1) Dermatomyositis

2) Muscle biopsy

3) Glucocorticoids

  

DISCUSSION:

Dermatomyositis in the juvenile form classically affects 5-15yo children with greater prevalence in girls.  The clinical presentation is dominated by symmetric proximal muscle weakness and accompanied by skin manifestations including the characteristic heliotrope rash (pictured below) or less commonly a malar rash, as well as shawl-distribution erythema of the upper back and chest which is photo-sensitive, periungual abnormalities, “mechanic’s hands,” psoriasiform scalp changes, and linear violaceous streaks on the trunk called flagellate erythema.  Gottron’s papules are flat erythematous papules on the extensor surfaces of the fingers.  Calcinosis cutis, deposition of calcium in the skin, is common in the juvenile form but rare in adults.  Other non-cutaneous manifestations include malaise, low-grade fever, anorexia, weight loss, fatigue, headache, myalgias and arthralgias, and dysphagia.  The adult form primarily affects ages 40-50 years but can occur in any age, and is associated with underlying malignancy.

More serious manifestations of dermatomyositis are common.  Interstitial lung disease occurs in 10% of cases, and may require invasive respiratory support, which may also be required for severe diaphragmatic and chest wall muscle weakness causing respiratory insufficiency.  Signs of respiratory compromise such as hypoxia on room air should prompt arterial blood gas analysis and testing by respiratory staff for measurement of negative inspiratory force, peak flow, and forced vital capacity.  Cardiac manifestations include myocarditis which may lead to elevated troponins but usually does not cause clinically significant heart failure.  Esophageal involvement may lead to severe dysphagia and even aspiration.

Polymyositis is differentiated from dermatomyositis by the lack of cutaneous manifestations, and muscle findings – including pulmonary, cardiac, and esophageal effects – and treatment options remain the same in both diseases.

Diagnosis of dermatomyositis is based on the presence of classic clinical findings, supported by elevated muscle enzymes, and confirmed with muscle biopsy showing atrophy and vascular C5b-9 deposition in the perimysial blood vessels.  EMG can also be useful for ruling out other pathology such as myotonic dystrophy, and typical findings in DM are increased membrane irritability, spontaneous fibrillations, abnormal motor potentials, and complex repetitive discharges.

The treatment of dermatomyositis primarily consists of high-dose steroid therapy, which may be oral for outpatient treatment or may be intravenous for more serious clinical manifestations of weakness or lung involvement.  Patients who are poorly responsive to glucocorticoids may require more aggressive therapy such as IVIG, immunosuppressant drugs (methotrexate, cyclosporine, azathioprine), or in anecdotal cases, hydroxychloroquine.  Plasmapheresis has no role in the treatment of dermatomyositis.

OUTCOME:

Rheumatology was consulted while the patient was in the Harper ED, and he was admitted to the service of his private PMD.  Dermatology, ID, neurology, and general surgery (for muscle biopsy) also followed him on the floor.  All services were in agreement as to the likely diagnosis of dermatomyositis, and although lupus was also a consideration it was felt to be less likely as he did not have significant arthralgias, photosensitivity, or oral ulcerations.  His facial rash was felt to be atypical of DM, and derm was concerned it was similar to that of systemic amyloidosis, so serum protein electrophoresis was performed, but was found to be normal.  A high-resolution chest CT was performed to rule out pulmonary involvement, and was negative.  RT performed testing showing an FVC of 4.1 L and an NIF of -80 cmH2O (both normal).  He was started on 60mg of oral prednisone daily, after which he experienced dramatic improvement.  He was discharged on HD#4 with instructions to continue the same dose of prednisone for at least 2-4 weeks and was given appropriate follow-up with all involved services.  Muscle biopsy results later demonstrated atrophy and other findings confirming the diagnosis of DM.  EMG results were not found in the EMR.

Senior Report 5.12

Case Presentation by Dr. Bao Dang

CC: “I think I’m having a miscarriage”

HPI: A 23-year-old G3P1011 patient states that she took a home pregnancy test two weeks ago that was positive.  Her last menstrual period was about 8 weeks ago.  She has been having vaginal bleeding for 7 days.  The bleeding started getting heavier over the last 3 days.  Today she noticed that there were large clots.  She’s had a similar presentation with her previous abortion and thinks that she may be having another one.  She complains of abdominal pain that is crampy and located in the suprapubic region without radiation, exacerbating or relieving factors.  Pt has not yet seen a physician for her pregnancy or vaginal bleeding.  No fevers, chills, nausea, vomiting, dysuria, or diarrhea.

PAST MEDICAL HISTORY:  asthma.

PAST SURGICAL HISTORY:  Cesarean section.

MEDICATIONS:  albuterol metered dose inhaler.

ALLERGIES:  NO KNOWN DRUG ALLERGIES.

SOCIAL HISTORY:  Positive for tobacco smoking; denies alcohol or illicit drug use.

SEXUAL HISTORY:  Positive PID years ago, no IUD use, no use of infertility treatment.  LMP 8 weeks ago

PE:

VITAL SIGNS:  BP131/78, HR 117, RR16, T36.2, P Ox 99% RA.

CONSTITUTIONAL:  The patient is awake, alert, and oriented x3, able to talk in full sentences and is comprehensible. Pt appears comfortable on her stretcher.

HEENT:  Conjunctivae are pink.  Mouth/throat – oral mucosa is moist.

PULMONARY:  Lung sounds are clear bilaterally.  No wheezes, rales, or rhonchi.

CARDIOVASCULAR:  S1 and S2 are present.  Tachycardic rate and regular rhythm.  No murmurs, rubs, or gallops.

GASTROINTESTINAL:  Normal bowel sounds. Abdomen is soft.  There is tenderness to palpation at the suprapubic area; however, no guarding or rebound tenderness.

GENITOURINARY:  Blood is seen within vaginal vault without clots.  The cervical os was closed.  No cervical motion tenderness.  Uterus midline, anteverted, normal size and shape, mobile, no masses, and non-tender.  No adnexal mass or tenderness.

Laboratory Studies:

β-HCG quantitative: 150

CBC: WBC 6.9, Hgb 12.5, Hct 37.0, Plts 370

UA: Nitrite & LE negative, Blood 3 +, RBC 10-20/HPF, WBC <5/HPF

Ultrasound:

Questions:

1. Which of the following poses the highest risk for ectopic pregnancy?

A.            history of previous pelvic inflammatory disease

B.            infertility treatment

C.            intrauterine device use

D.            previous ectopic pregnancy

E.            tubal ligation

2.  Which of the following conditions is most likely if the β-HCG level fails to double, or decreases in 48-hours?

A.            ectopic pregnancy

B.            heterotopic pregnancy

C.            non-viable intrauterine pregnancy

D.            viable intrauterine pregnancy

3.  Which of the following is associated with methotrexate use?

A.            an increase in abdominal pain is observed in about 30-60% of patients treated with methotrexate

B.            delayed tubal rupture occur in about 3-20%

C.            nausea, vomiting & diarrhea in about 5-20% of patients

D.            patient should be instructed to avoid vitamins containing folic acid and avoid sexual intercourse until β-HCG level has come back to baseline

E.            all of the above

Answers:
1. E.
Female patients of reproductive age who present with amenorrhea, abdominal pain and/or vaginal bleeding must have ectopic pregnancy in the differential. Ectopic pregnancy is defined as implantation of a fertilized ovum in any location other than the endometrial cavity. Up to 2% of reported pregnancies are ectopic. 95% of ectopic pregnancies implant in a fallopian tube, of which 80% implant in the ampulla, 12% in the isthmus, 5% in the fimbrae, and 2% at the junction of the uterus and fallopian tube. Other rare sites of implantation include abdominal cavity, ovary, and cervix.
All the above question responses increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy. A history of tubal ligation, however, poses the highest risk. About 10% of ectopic pregnancies occur in women with prior tubal ligation. Unless there is a confirmed hysterectomy, pregnancy cannot be excluded in a child-bearing-aged female.
2. A.
There is no combination of historical and physical findings that will definitively diagnose ectopic pregnancy. The diagnosis is made clinically by combining elements of the history and physical exam with ultrasound findings and a quantitative β-HCG. Urine β-HCG will screen for pregnancy. The quantitative β-HCG is used to guide the disposition of the patient. Trans-vaginal ultrasound (TVUS) should reliably detect an intrauterine pregnancy (IUP) if β-HCG level is above 1500-2000 mIU/mL. This level is called the discriminatory zone. Trans-abdominal ultrasound should be able to detect an IUP when β-HCG is above 6,500 mIU/mL. For patients with β-HCG above the discriminatory level and a TVUS demonstrating an IUP, ectopic can be reliably ruled out. Patients with β-HCG below the discriminatory zone should be instructed to follow-up in two days for a repeat quantitative level. The β-HCG should approximately double in 48 hours in a normal gestation. A TVUS should be obtained once the β-HCG level is above discriminatory zone.

3. E.
Ectopic pregnancy can be managed via pharmacological or surgical methods. Methotrexate is the primary agent used in pharmacological management. It is an analog of folic acid that will be taken up by rapidly dividing cells, such as those of the fetus, and disrupts DNA and RNA synthesis within those cells. The use of methotrexate for treatment should only be used in patients who meet the following criteria: patient would like to avoid surgery, have ultrasound findings that show no fluid outside the pelvis and adnexal mass less than 4.0 cm, available for weekly follow-up visits, and is hemodynamically stable. The surgical approach to treatment involves either a complete salpingectomy or tubal preserving strategy. A consultation with OB/Gyn is always needed.

Case Summary:
The patient’s ultrasound showed evidence concerning for a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. However, clinically the patient was stable. She did not show any signs of shock or instability often associated with ruptured ectopic pregnancy. OB/Gyn was consulted, and the patient was taken to the OR for emergent laparoscopic surgery. At surgery, a large amount of adhesions were demonstrated, but no evidence of an ectopic pregnancy. Adhesions were lysed and she was discharged home on post-operative day #1. Biopsy of the right adnexa showed no evidence of ectopic pregnancy. Adhesions were likely from previous PID. The patient likely had a spontaneous abortion of her pregnancy.

Intern Report 5.11

Case Presentation by Dr. Adnan Sabic

CC:  Shortness of breath

HPI:  52 year old male presents to the ED with four weeks of SOB and right sided chest pain. His symptoms have gradually progressed in severity and were worse with exertion.  These symptoms started several days after he fell against a counter and struck his right chest wall. He initially had a “small gash and black and blue mark” on his right lateral chest wall but these resolved over the course of the month. He denied similar symptoms in the past. He denied any nausea or vomiting.  He denied any orthopnea or PND symptoms. He did not take any medication for this. He complained of low grade fever. Review of systems is otherwise negative.

PMH: HTN, uncontrolled.

Medication: none

PSH: none

Allergies: NKDA

PFH: Negative for DM, HTN, Ca.

PSH: positive for tobacco use, negative for EtOH or illicit drugs.

Physical exam:

Vital signs: 37.9 C, 111, 26, 160/95 and  98 % RA,

General: WNWD 52 year old male who appears to be tachypneic.

Head: NCAT

Eyes: PERRLA, EOMI

Neck: trachea is midline, no c-spine tenderness, no crepitus

Cardiovascular: S1 &S2, tachycardic, no murmors, no JVD

Respiratory: Tachypnic, clear breath sounds on the left, but absent breath sounds on the right chest in all lung segments.

GI: soft, NT/ND, +BS

MSK: chest wall was non-tender throughout palpation without any crepitance. Rest of the exam is unremarkable.

Neurological: A&O X3, no obvious neurological deficits.

CXR was obtained:

 

 

  Questions

A)  What is your suspected diagnosis?

  1. Hemothorax
  2. Empyema/Intraparenchymal lung abscess
  3. Pneumonia
  4. Unilateral diaphragm perforation

B)  A chest tube was placed and 1500 cc of yellow, exudative fluid was removed from the right chest cavity.  Which of the following are consistent with exudative fluid?

  1. The ratio of pleural fluid protein to serum protein is greater than 0.5
  2. The ratio of pleural fluid LDH and serum LDH is greater than 0.6
  3. The difference between the albumin level in the blood and the pleural fluid is greater than 1.2 g/dL
  4. A&B
  5. All of the above

C)  What is the most common cause of this condition?

  1. Penetrating trauma
  2. Esophageal rupture
  3. Pleural extension of pneumonia
  4. Previous  thoracic surgery
  5. Previous chest tube placement

Discussion:

Answers:

A)     2

B)     4

C)     3

An empyema is a collection of exudate in the pleural cavity. It is most often caused by pleural extension of pneumonia, but it may be also caused by any seeding of the pleural cavity from penetrating trauma, esophageal rupture, previous thoracic surgery or previous chest tube placement. Empyema is also an under recognized complication of blunt thoracic trauma and may be an occult perpetrator in subsequent respiratory failure and need for mechanical ventilation.

In the emergency setting, chest radiography is indicated to differentiate other chest pathology that can present similarly. A CT of the chest may be necessary to assess for underlying pneumonia, lung abscess, tumor, septations or other pleural disease. When 2-view chest radiographs are used to detect pleural fluid, the sensitivity is 67% and the specificity is 70%. Decubitus views increase the degree of confidence. However, decubitus views are often skipped, and the patient instead undergoes a CT examination.

In the absence of trauma or surgery, the diagnosis of empyema would be very unlikely. Clinically, one might suspect empyema if the patient has fever, productive cough, or clinical symptoms consistent with pneumonia. Radiographically and without a known history, it would be difficult to differentiate the two entities. The gold standard for differentiating them is tube thoracostomy and evaluation of the fluid.

The fluid obtained by tube thoracostomy is either exudate or transudate. Transudate is produced through pressure filtration without capillary injury while exudate is due to leakage from inflammatory cells. It is critical to identify the fluid as either exudate or transudate in order to make an accurate diagnosis. Light’s criteria, which compares chemistries of the fluid to blood is used to classify the fluid. Fluid is likely exudative if one of the following is true: the ratio of pleural fluid protein to serum protein is greater than 0.5, the ratio of pleural fluid LDH to serum LDH is greater than 0.6, the difference between albumin the fluid and albumin in the blood is less than 1.2 g/dL. Usually protein content of exudate is greater than 35 g/L and cholesterol content is greater than 45 mg/dL.

The definitive management of empyema should be made in consultation with thoracic surgery and infectious disease. The gold standard of treatment has been prompt tube thoracostomy and intravenous antibiotics, but recent literature has suggested a benefit in both intrapleural fibrinolytics and early VATS. Pleural fluid should be sent for analysis and they should be admitted to the hospital for continued therapy.


Intern Report 5.10

Case Presentation by Dr. Vit Kraushaar

A 38 year old African American female presents to the ED with a chief complaint of shortness of breath.  She began feeling ill 3 days ago with cough, myalgias, severe chills, fever and progressively worsening shortness of breath.  This morning she coughed up some blood streaked sputum, which prompted her to come to the emergency department.  The patient complains that her shortness of breath is associated with sharp, non-radiating midsternal chest tightness that is pleuritic in nature.  She informs you that several of her co-workers are also feeling ill, with one admitted to the ICU yesterday with a diagnosis of pneumonia.  The patient works at a coffee shop that you recall is located across the street from the local university’s newly constructed bioterrorism research lab.

ROS: Positive for fevers, chills, myalgias, nausea, cough/hemoptysis, and shortness of breath.

PMH: Hypertension.  Denies CAD, CHF, COPD, cancer.

PSH: None

Social Hx: Drinks alcohol rarely.  Denies tobacco or illicit drug use.

Medications:  amlodipine

Allergies: Seasonal allergies

Physical Exam:

General appearance:  Patient is ill-appearing, diaphoretic, and only able to speak in half-sentences because of dyspnea.

Vitals: BP 120/55, HR 115 bpm, RR 28, T 38.6, 97% O2 saturation on room air

Eyes: No scleral icterus or conjunctival pallor

HEENT: Mucous membranes are moist, no oropharyngeal swelling, erythema, or tonsillar exudates, no oral thrush

Neck:  Trachea midline. No nuchal rigidity, no jugular venous distension.

Heart: S1 and S2 were heard.  Tachycardic rate and regular rhythm.  No murmurs or gallops.

Lungs: Inspiratory rales and diminished breath sounds auscultated bilaterally.  No wheezing.

Abdomen: Soft, non-tender, no guarding.

Skin: No rashes or bruising noted

Neurologic: Alert and oriented with no motor or sensory deficits.

Labs:

CBC: Hb 15, Hct 46, WBC 11.5, Plt 130

Electrolytes: Na 134, K 3.5, Cl 96, CO2 26, BUN 18, Cr 0.8

Troponin: Negative x 1

Blood and sputum cultures are pending

EKG: Sinus tachycardia, 116 bpm.  PR, QRS, QTc intervals normal.  Normal axis, no LVH.  No ST-T changes.

Imaging:

Chest x-ray (see image below)

Formal read of the CT demonstrates “Mediastinal hemorrhagic lymphadenopathy (white arrowhead), with additional involvement of the paratracheal, subaortic, and azygoesophageal recess nodes. A high-density hemorrhagic pericardial effusion is also present.”

The patient continues to develop worsening respiratory distress and eventually she is intubated in the ED for acute respiratory failure.

As an astute ED physician, you think that there is a connection between this patient’s symptoms and the fact that she works across the street from a bioterrorism research facility, especially considering her reports of several sick coworkers.  Though you are still considering more common diagnoses on your differential, you consider that this patient may have been exposed to a bioterrorism agent.

1)     This patient’s history and clinical presentation is typical of inhalational exposure to which of the following possible bioterrorism agents?

  1. anthrax (Bacillus anthracis)
  2. Q fever (Coxiella burnetii)
  3. ricin toxin (from Ricinus communus)
  4. smallpox (Variola major)
  5. tularemia (rabbit fever) (Francisella tularensis)

2)     You call the hospital laboratory and state that you are concerned that your patient may have been exposed to a biologic weapons agent.  They send a blood sample to a state public health lab.  In the meantime, you request that they perform a peripheral blood smear on one of the blood samples that you sent to their lab.  They call you back in half an hour stating that the sample contained large gram positive bacilli.  Having tentatively confirmed your diagnosis (from question 1), which of the following antibiotics should you initiate?

  1. cefepime
  2. ceftriaxone
  3. ciprofloxacin
  4. gentamicin
  5. trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

3)     The patient was accompanied to the ED by one of her coworkers.  You are worried that he may have been exposed to the same bioterrorism agent.  He states that he generally feels fine, but he does have a skin lesion on his arm (see picture below).  The patient states that this lesion is painless.


What is the appropriate treatment?

a)     incision and drainage

b)     observation and follow-up

c)     oral antibiotics

d)     topical antibiotics

e)     topical steroids

 

Answers:

1)     Correct answer: A (Inhalational anthrax)

This case mimics a real life incident where anthrax spores were accidentally vented from a bioweapons facility in the town of Sverdlovsk, in the former Soviet Union in 1979.  This led to 77 cases of inhalational anthrax and many deaths, with many cases occurring in workers from a nearby factory.  The appearance of multiple cases of previously healthy patients who develop a rapidly fulminant pneumonia should raise the suspicion for a bioterrorism incident.  Inhalational anthrax has classically been described as following a two stage course.  In the first stage, symptoms are nonspecific and often flu-like (e.g. fever, dyspnea, cough, headache, vomiting, chills, weakness, abdominal pain, and chest pain).  This first stage can last from hours to days.  The second stage is marked by abrupt onset of high fever, dyspnea, diaphoresis, and shock.  Chest x-ray will show multiple abnormalities, most classically a widened mediastinum, but also including infiltrates and a pleural effusion.  CT Thorax will show enlarged hyperdense mediastinal and hilar lymph nodes.  Cyanosis and hypotension eventually develop, and death follows soon.  This second stage can occur within hours.  Mortality rate is estimated at between 50 – 90% for inhalational anthrax.   (Note: Pneumonic plague caused by Yersinia pestis can present very similarly to this case, with flu like symptoms progressing to respiratory failure, shock, and death within days.  Pneumonic plague, unlike inhalational anthrax, can be transmitted from person to person).   Ricin toxin inhalation would cause symptoms within hours of exposure, leading rapidly from flu like symptoms to respiratory distress and then shock and death.  Inhaled aerosolized F. tularensis, or C. burnetii could both cause initial flu-like symptoms progressing to pneumonia, though the course in both of these diseases would be slower, milder and less likely to be fatal than inhalational anthrax (especially for C. burnetii infection).  Neither ricin, tularemia, nor Q fever are associated with widened mediastinum on chest x-ray.  Variola major infection (Smallpox), starts off with a flu-like prodrome and then produces a characteristic pustular rash and is not consistent with this patient’s clinical picture.

2)     Correct answer: C (ciprofloxacin)

Anthrax is described as a large, gram positive bacilli that can be seen on a blood smear or CSF stain later on in the disease course.  Blood cultures should be drawn prior to antibiotic initiation, and will grow B. anthracis in 6-24 hours.  The recommended initial IV therapy for inhalational anthrax is ciprofloxacin, 400 mg Q12 hours or alternately doxycycline 100mg Q12 hours.   Naturally occurring B. anthracis have shown resistance to extended spectrum cephalosporins as well as TMP/SMX.

3)     Correct answer: C (oral antibiotics)

This picture shows the characteristic painless black eschar of cutaneous anthrax.  There were 11 cases of cutaneous anthrax following the 2001 anthrax mail attacks.  Cutaneous anthrax starts as a pruritic macule or papule, progresses to ulcer and vesicles, and finally leads to a black painless eschar with local edema.  Without treatment, cutaneous anthrax can progress to systemic disease with a mortality rate as high as 20%.  The appropriate treatment is oral ciprofloxacin or doxycycline.  Treatment does not alter the course of the eschar but does prevent the development of systemic disease.

 

 

Take Home Message:

-        ED physicians play an instrumental role in health surveillance in the event of a possible bioterrorism attack

-        Suspect inhalational anthrax in the presentation of multiple cases of a severe acute febrile illness progressing to pneumonia with a fulminant course in previously healthy individuals

-        Chest x-ray will commonly show a widened mediastinum and pleural effusions, and CT will show enlarged mediastinal and hilar lymph nodes

-        Large gram positive bacilli can be identified in blood smears and CSF gram stains, and in blood cultures in 6 – 24 hours

-        The initial IV antibiotics of choice are ciprofloxacin or doxycycline

-        Any case of inhalational anthrax should be regarded as a bioterrorism incident until proven otherwise.  Suspicions of anthrax infection should be reported immediately to local or state public health departments.


Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis)

 

Natural anthrax infections  - Natural cases of B. anthracis infection occur in herbivores that ingest the bacteria from the soil.  Human infection occurs mainly from exposure to infected animals, historically in goat hair mill workers and leather tanners.  No natural cases of inhalational anthrax have been reported in the U.S. since 1976 due to vaccination of livestock.

Anthrax as a weapon – Multiple countries including the U.S., former Soviet Union, and Japan historically investigated the use of anthrax as a biological weapon.  Unintentional release of anthrax from a Soviet bioweapons facility occurred in Sverdlovsk in the former Soviet Union in 1979 leading to many infections and deaths.  The Aum Shinrikyo cult, known better for releasing sarin nerve gas in a Tokyo subway station in the 1990s, attempted to disperse anthrax spores through Tokyo multiple times, but were unsuccessful.  In 2001, anthrax was used as a terror weapon through delivery of spores through U.S. mail to multiple locations, resulting in 22 anthrax cases, 11 cases of inhalational anthrax, and 5 deaths.

 

Pathogenesis

Humans can develop cutaneous, inhalational, and gastrointestinal anthrax.  In inhalational anthrax, spores are inhaled into the alveoli, where they are phagocytosed by macrophages and transported to the mediastinal lymph nodes.  There, the spores hatch into vegetative cells, which release cytotoxic factors leading to cell death, edema, and ultimately mediastinal hemorrhage and bloody pleural effusions.  In cutaneous anthrax, spores gain entry into the skin, often through abrasions or cuts.  The spores hatch and again the vegetative cells release cytotoxins leading to cell necrosis.  Gastrointestinal anthrax is mainly caused by ingestion of undercooked meat contaminated with vegetative B. anthracis, and is not generally associated with bioterrorism.

 

Clinical Manifestations

Inhalational anthrax classically has been described as following a two stage course.  In the first stage, symptoms are nonspecific and include fever, dyspnea, cough, headache, vomiting, chills, weakness, abdominal pain, and chest pain.  This first stage can last from hours to days.  The second stage is marked by abrupt onset of high fever, dyspnea, diaphoresis, and shock.  Mediastinal lymph node enlargement can be so severe that it leads to airway obstruction.  Cyanosis and hypotension eventually develop, and death follows soon.  This second stage can occur within hours.

Cutaneous anthrax starts as a pruritic macule or papule, progresses to ulcer and vesicles, and finally leads to a black painless eschar with local edema.  Without antibiotics, cutaneous anthrax can often lead to systemic disease with a mortality rate as high as 20%.

 

Lab/Microbiology

General lab tests – May show leukocytosis, hemoconcentration, and/or elevated transaminases.

Specific identification –    B. anthracis cells appear as large gram positive bacilli. They can be seen in blood smears and in CSF.  Blood cultures will grow B anthracis in all media in anywhere from 6 to 24 hours.  Suspected anthrax should be confirmed by a local or state public health laboratory.

Imaging

Chest x-ray: Multiple abnormalities are usually present, including mediastinal widening (secondary to mediastinal lymphadenopathy), pulmonary infiltrates, and pleural effusion

CT: Hyperdense hilar and mediastinal lymph nodes, edema, infiltrates, and pleural effusion

 

Treatment

Suspicion or confirmation of inhalational anthrax should lead to immediate notification of the local or state public health department, local or hospital epidemiologist, and local or state public health laboratories. It is important to treat suspected cases of inhalational anthrax even before there is laboratory confirmation.  It is also important to draw cultures before antibiotics are initiated.

The following tables show recommended treatments for inhalational anthrax in a contained casualty situation, as well as the treatment regimen for cutaneous anthrax.

Inglesby TV, O’Toole T, Henderson DA, Bartlett JG, Ascher MS, Eitzen E, et al. Anthrax as a biological weapon 2002: updated recommendations for management. Jama. 2002;287:2236–2252.

Inglesby TV, O’Toole T, Henderson DA, Bartlett JG, Ascher MS, Eitzen E, et al. Anthrax as a biological weapon 2002: updated recommendations for management. Jama. 2002;287:2236–2252.

Bibliography:

“CDC | Bioterrorism Agents/Diseases (by Category) | Emergency Preparedness & Response.” CDC Emergency Preparedness & Response Site. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. Web. 13 Jan. 2012. <http://www.bt.cdc.gov/agent/agentlist-category.asp>.

Cutaneous Anthrax picture was taken from: http://www.freeinfosociety.com/media.php?id=1298

Inglesby TV, O’Toole T, Henderson DA, Bartlett JG, Ascher MS, Eitzen E, et al. Anthrax as a biological weapon 2002: updated recommendations for management. Jama. 2002;287:2236–2252.

Mina B, Dym JP, Kuepper F, Tso R, Arrastia C, et al. Fatal inhalational anthrax with unknown source of exposure in a 61-year old woman in New York City. JAMA. 2002;287:858–862.

 

 

Case 5.9

Case Presentation by Dr. Andrew Klutman

CC:  “My chest hurts and the left side of my body is tingling and numb”

HPI: 82 yo female was otherwise normal until 10am this morning when her family stated that she kind of passed out. She did not hit her head as she was sitting on the couch. When she came to she complained of tingling and numbness in her left arm and leg along with rather severe chest pain. She was brought in by EMS and they stated that she was in minor distress and sitting in a chair when they arrived on seen. She also complains of a sharp chest pain she describes as below the sternum that was worse when it first started but is more mild but constant now. She has been eating and drinking without issues, and has been feeling just fine previously. She denies any fevers or chills, nausea/vomiting/diarrhea, cough, or problems urinating. However she does provide that she has feels a little SOB since being picked up by EMS when asked.

ROS: Negative otherwise noted in HPI

PMH: TIA last year, Hypertension, aortic valve replacement in 2007

PSH: Cholecystectomy in 2001

MEDS: Metoprolol

SH: Quit smoking 15 years ago. Denies drinking or elicit drug use. Lives at home with her husband.

EXAM:

Vitals: T- 37.6 oral  HR- 95 BP- 148/68 RESP- 22

GEN: In mild distress. Is alert and oriented and answers questions appropriately

CV:  Regular rate and rhythm, no murmurs noted. Upper ext pulses are 3+ and the lower ext pulses are 2+.

RESP: CTAB

GI: Non tender, non distended, positive bowel sounds

EXT: 5+ strength in both upper and lower extremities.

HENT: Normal cephalic, no facial droop or asymmetry noted.

NEURO: All extremities are intact to soft touch

Labs: Abnormalities: WBC – 12, electrolytes are WNL, INR – 1.6

EKG:

CXR:

QUESTIONS:

What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Cardiac tamponade
b) PE
c) Stroke
d) Aortic dissection

What subjective finding helps most in delineating MI from the above diagnosis?
a) Tingling/numbness on the left side of the body
b) Substernal chest pain
c) Sudden severe chest pain that was worse upon onset
d) Radiation up into the jaw

Roughly what percentage of patients with this diagnosis are initially confused for MI or something else upon initial presentation?
a) None
b) 100%
c) 72.655 %
d) 38 %

Discussion & Answers

1)    D

2)    C

3)    D

What is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Cardiac tamponade
b) PE
c) Stroke
d) Aortic dissection

Aortic dissection is a great imitator.  There are several physical exam findings is this case that help guide you toward the diagnosis. First, she is hypertensive which is a common finding and also cause of a dissection. The hypertension is related to a combination of the underlying factors that led to the dissection, a resulting catecholamine surge and/or the false lumen compressing and narrowing the true lumen. The narrowing, for all intent and purposes, “stenosis” the true lumen increasing the overall pressure proximal to the involved portion of the aorta. It’s important to note that dissections can also present with hypotension which should make you think tamponade, rupture or MI from involvement of the coronaries if the diagnosis of dissection is being considered. The narrowing also causes the difference in peripheral pulses which makes sense. I like to kind of think of it as being similar to a coarctation where the blood pressure is less distally to the dissection making it less easily palpated in the lower extremities. Next, the wide pulse pressure is likely due to the tear extending into the aortic valve resulting in aortic regurgitation. Remember she previously had a valve replaced? Valve replacement can help precipitate the dissection.  The CXR shows widening of the mediastinum. An estimated 62 percent of patients with a dissection have a widened mediastinum. However, nearly 12% are read as normal.

As far as the subjective findings, the patient “passed out.” 5% of patients with aortic dissection will experience a syncopal episode. She also states that she is short of breath which can be a result of the dissection compressing a main stem bronchus. Other symptoms to look for include dysphagia from the esophagus being compressed, flank pain from renal artery involvement in the dissection, and of course stomach pain from a descending dissection occluding a mesentery vessel.

What subjective finding helps most in delineating MI from the above diagnosis?
a) Tingling/numbness on the left side of the body
b) Substernal chest pain
c) Sudden severe chest pain that was worse upon onset
d) Radiation up into the jaw

Dissection can look like an MI. The classical substernal ripping/tearing sensation that radiates to the back is not always the case. In fact, 10% of patients with dissection present with no pain at all, while others present with more mild symptoms that look like musculosketal pain. As far as MI vs dissection, they both can cause substernal chest pain (aortic root) and both can even radiate into the neck or jaw (aortic arch). In addition to all this, dissections into the cardiac vessels can an STEMI with elevated troponins.  So, the fact that the pain is more severe at onset is a clue that the patient is likely dissecting. This subjective finding was highlighted by several sources as being a focal finding during initial presentation that should clue us in that dissection needs to be considered.

Roughly what percentage of patients with this diagnosis is initially confused for MI or something else upon initial presentation?
a) None
b) 100%
c) 72.655 %
d) 38%

MI and musculoskeletal pain are not the only contributors to the confusion. In fact, 38% dissections are missed upon initial presentation. 20% of dissections have neurological manifestations which can make you think stroke. Patients can present with hemiparesis, hemianesthesia or weakness. If the cervical ganglion is affect, dissection patients can present with Horner’s syndrome. If that was not enough, peripheral nerve ischemia may manifest with numbness and tingling, pain, or weakness in the extremities. The bottom-line is to keep dissection in your differential when working up chest pain as it has a very high morbidity and mortality and has a high probability of being initially missed.

Senior Case Report 5.8

Case Presentation by Dr. Katie Dobratz

CC: “I fell”

HPI: Patient is a 49 yo male who states he fell off a ladder about 3 feet. He believes he landed on his left side, mostly on the left elbow and left side of his body and back.  He states that his head hit last and he did not sustain any loss of consciousness and has no acute headache.  He is complaining of acute pain in the left elbow.  He states he looked at his back and noticed a swelling and is having pain there as well. He drove himself here to the hospital and currently is standing at the side of the bed complaining of pain in the left lower back, left elbow, and left flank pain.  The pain in the back has not radiated.  It stays on the left side near the swelling and is described as a sharp pinching movement that is deep inside.  He states movement makes it worse.  Nothing makes it better.  Rates it an 8/10.

ROS:

CONSTITUTIONAL:  No fevers, chills or weakness.

EYES:  No visual changes.

ENT:  No facial trauma.

CARDIOVASCULAR:  Some left-sided upper back, chest pain.

RESPIRATORY:  Some pain with deep breaths on the left.  No shortness of breath.

GI:  No abdominal pain.

GENITOURINARY:  No hematuria.  Positive left flank pain.

SKIN:  Positive laceration over the left elbow.

MUSCULOSKELETAL:  Left lower lumbar pain, left rib pain.  Left elbow pain.

NEUROLOGIC:  No loss of consciousness, numbness, tingling or weakness.

PAST MEDICAL HISTORY:  None.

PAST SURGICAL HISTORY:  Vasectomy

MEDICATIONS:  NONE

ALLERGIES:  None.

SOCIAL HISTORY:  Denies alcohol, tobacco, and illicit drug abuse.  The patient works as a UPS driver and deliveryman.

PHYSICAL EXAM:

VITAL SIGNS:  On arrival 161/89 with pulse 64, respirations 16, temperature 36.6 and pulse oximetry is 98% on room air, which is within normal limits.

GENERAL:  This is a 49-year-old, well-nourished, well-developed, well-hydrated male standing at the side of an ER cart in mild to moderate distress.

PSYCHIATRIC:  Awake, alert, and cooperative, with normal memory, mood and judgment.

HEAD:  Normocephalic, atraumatic.

EYES:  Reveal no conjunctiva injection.  No scleral icterus.

ENT:  His oropharynx is clear with moist mucous membranes.

NECK:  Trachea is midline, no tenderness in the cervical spine to palpation

CARDIOVASCULAR:  Heart has a regular rate and rhythm.  There is no S3, S4.

RESPIRATORY:  Normal respiratory effort. He has equal and clear breath sounds bilaterally.  No rales, rhonchi or wheezes.  No obvious splinting.     GI:  His abdomen is soft, nontender.  There is no rebound, rigidity or guarding.

SKIN:  Warm and dry. There is a laceration and abrasion over the left elbow.  There is a contusion over L1.  No other obvious sites of bruising or injury.  No further abrasions or lacerations.

MUSCULOSKELETAL:  He has some tenderness over the superior SI joint on the left and over the paraspinal musculature of the lumbar area.  He has contusion and swelling over L1 but no acute tenderness to palpation in this area.  He has some tenderness over the left posterior ribs profusely.  There is no point tenderness.  Extends from the midaxillary to the midscapular line.  He has no tenderness over the C-spine or T-spine.  Examination of the right upper extremity, left lower and right lower extremity shows no gross abnormalities or tenderness to palpation.  The pelvis is nontender.  The left upper extremity reveals a 2-cm laceration over the elbow.  However, he has full range of motion of the elbow.  No acute bony tenderness to palpation is noted up and down the left upper extremity.

Neruologically: A&O x 3, GCS of 15, no facial droop, normal speech, ambulates with a steady gait and has symmetrical strength upper and lower extremities

XRAY:

QUESTIONS:

1) What abnormality is seen in the radiologic study seen above?

2) Based on the radiologic study, what laboratory study must be ordered to rule out an important associated injury?

a) electrolytes

b) CPK

c) lactate

d) U/A

3) What other imaging study can be of use in further diagnosing this injury or associated injuries

a) Intravenous pyleogram

b) Angiography

c) Ultrasound

d) Computed tomogram

————————————————————

Answers and Discussion:

1)   Transverse process fracture of the lumbar spine

2)   Urinalysis

3)   Computed Tomography

1)   Transverse Process fractures put the patient at risk for ureteral injuries.  Ureteral injuries due to external trauma are rare. It composes less than 1% of all genitourinary injuries caused by external trauma.   The ureter is well protected by the bony pelvis, psoas muscle and vertebrae.  If the ureter is damaged, it is generally due to a significant trauma with associated injuries to other abdominal organs.  The presentation and management is generally dictated by the severity of associated injuries.  Penetrating trauma is more likely the cause of ureteral injury than blunt trauma accounting for 91%.  Ureteral injuries associated with blunt trauma generally occur at the pelviureter junction.  With blunt trauma the mechanism of injury is generally hyperextension with overstretching or compression of the ureter against the transverse process of the lumbar spine.  These injuries generally result from high speed MVCs, a fall from a significant height, or a direct blow to L2-L3 region   In this case, the transverse processes were actually fractured off the vertebral body, increasing the risk of penetrating ureteral injury.  Penetrating ureteral injuries generally occur in the upper portion greater than the distal portion, although this is generally due to penetrating trauma from a projectile or stab wound.  Ureteral injuries can range from a simple contusion to partial tear to full transection.

2)   In patients with external trauma a high level of suspicion must be maintained.  The diagnostic laboratory test of choice to assess for ureteral injury is a urinalysis.  This is to assess for microscopic hematuria or gross hematuria.  There is controversy related to the evaluation of ureteral injuries, by means of urinalysis.  Hematuria is found in 74% of cases (either gross or microscopic.) Failure to see hematuria may be due to complete transection of the ureter or partial transection of an adynamic segment. There have been studies that show absent hematuria in patients with penetrating trauma, but operatively found to have disruption of the ureter (Brandes et al.)  This has made the evaluation of ureteral trauma with urinalysis not completely reliable.

3)   CT is the most reliable means to diagnosis an ureteral injury in blunt trauma with a stable patient.  If the clinician has a high index of suspicion for ureteral injury, a CT scan should be performed with images in the excretory phase to visualize the opacified collecting system and ureters.  This means having delayed imaging of at least 10-15 minutes after contrast injection in order to see urine extravasation. The integrity of the ureter can be determined whether iodinated urine is present in the ureter below the level of the injury.  If it is this may be indicative of a partial disruption or contusion.  This type of injury, particularly a partial tear, may be repaired by ureteral stenting versus a laparotomy.  Intravenous pyleograms maybe considered if a patient is unstable and unable to be taken to the CT scanner.  IVP’s can be done in the operating room, but there have been documented cases where IVP has failed to diagnosis a ureteral injury, making this an unreliable test as well.  Findings that suggest an injury include delayed renal function or excretion, ureteral dilatation or deviation, extravasation of contrast or non-visualization of the ureter.

Case 5.7

Case Presentation by Dr. Tim Scott

CC: Fatigue

HPI:  19yo W M with no PMH presents to the ED with complaint of fatigue.  He states that over approximately the last 6 months he has noticed that he has decreased energy that has gotten progressively worse.  He is single, lives with a room-mate and is employed.  He has no history or family history of depression.  He denies drug/alcohol abuse.  He denies any hematuria, dark or bloody stools and any other complaints.

ROS:  Positive for fatigue

PMH: Denies

PSH: Denies

Social: Denies smoking or drug use.  Drinks occasionally with friends

PE:  Pulse 86, Respirations 16, Temp 37.1, PaSO2  97% RA

Const: W/D, W/N Appears stated age, NAD

HEENT:  membranes moist, left side painless cervical lymphadenopathy, trachea midline

CV: RRR, S1 S2

Lungs: CTAB

Abd: Soft, NT/ND, BS +

Extr: normal pulses, strength and ROM

At this point you do a CBC with lytes which comes back as follows

CBC:  Hgb 12.1 and WBC 31.1  – the rest was WNL

Lytes: WNL

You go back and press this patient for more information…he says he has felt “the lump” in his neck for a few months now but he denies any cough, fever, vomiting, diarrhea and the only other info you get out of him is that he sometimes feels itchy all over.

You order a CXR because he has an elevated white count

Questions:

1) What is the likely Diagnosis in this patient?

  1. Hodgkins Lymphoma
  2. Acute Myelogenous Leukemia
  3. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
  4. Pneumonia

2) What current infection (or previous history of infection) would increase the patient’s risk for this disease 5-25 times?

  1. Varicella Zoster
  2. Herpes Zoster
  3. Pertussis
  4. HIV

3) Which one of the following is NOT a common presenting symptom/sign for this disease?

  1. Painless lymphadenopathy of cervical region, axilla or groin
  2. Fever, weight loss and or night sweats
  3. Mediastinal mass causing mass effect symptoms like pain, pleural effusion or superior vena cava syndrome
  4. Pruritis and fatigue

Answers:

  1. A.  This patient likely has Hodgkins Lymphoma.  HL arises from germinal center or post-germinal center B cells and has a unique cellular composition, containing a minority of neoplastic cells (Reed-Sternberg cells and their variants) in an inflammatory background and can cause anemia and elevated white counts. HL has a bimodal age distribution curve. In the US and other economically advantaged countries, there is one peak in young adults (approximately age 20 years) and one in older age (approximately age 65 years); the majority of patients are young adults and there is a slight male predominance.  AML and ALL are close second options here due to similar early presentations, however, with AML, the median age at diagnosis is 65 years old and with ALL the vast majority of cases present between 2-5 years of age.  Bleeding disorders are more likely to be present and the cause of an initial presentation with these patients.
  1. D.  The incidence of HL is increased in a number of settings associated with immunodeficiency and infection. Among patients infected with HIV, the relative risk of HL is increased in various studies from fivefold to 25-fold. There also appears to be an increased risk of HL in patients with a history of infectious mononucleosis caused by Epstein Barr virus.  Interestingly, other childhood infectious illnesses including chickenpox, measles, mumps, rubella, and pertussis are negatively associated with the risk of HL.
  1. C.  A, B and D are all true.  Though a mediastinal mass discovered on routine chest x ray is a common presentation in an HL patient, it is NOT common to have any symptoms associated with it. The mass may be fairly large without producing local symptoms. Less commonly, the mass produces nonspecific symptoms such as retrosternal chest pain, cough, or shortness of breath. Small pericardial or pleural effusions are rare except in patients with bulky mediastinal disease. Superior vena caval obstruction is also rare.  Painless lymphadenopathy is present in as much as 80% of patients with HL.  Fever, weight loss and night sweats (the classic B symptoms), though not specific to HL, are present in less than 20 percent of patients with stage I/II Hodgkin lymphoma and up to 50 percent of patients with advanced disease.  Pruritus and fatigue, though not specific, can be early symptoms of the disease.  Pruritus specifically may be an important early symptom, preceding the diagnosis of HL by months or even a year or more. Pruritus occurs early in approximately 10 to 15 percent of patients, but the great majority of patients experience pruritus at some time during the course of illness. It is usually generalized and occasionally severe enough to cause intense scratching and excoriations.
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