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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
A 37-year-old woman on oral contraceptives presents with pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. Which of the following findings is classically associated with pulmonary embolism?
Correct
Pulmonary emboli most commonly result from deep venous thrombi in the legs that move and pass through the right ventricle into the pulmonary vasculature. The emboli can lodge anywhere across the pulmonary circulation including the main pulmonary arteries or at the smallest subsegmental levels. Traditional chest radiography rarely provides information helpful in identifying pulmonary embolism as the definitive cause of a patient’s symptoms but may suggest alternative causes. Westermark’s sign is a rare finding on chest X-ray representing oligemia of the pulmonary vasculature visualized distal to the site of embolism.
Incorrect
Pulmonary emboli most commonly result from deep venous thrombi in the legs that move and pass through the right ventricle into the pulmonary vasculature. The emboli can lodge anywhere across the pulmonary circulation including the main pulmonary arteries or at the smallest subsegmental levels. Traditional chest radiography rarely provides information helpful in identifying pulmonary embolism as the definitive cause of a patient’s symptoms but may suggest alternative causes. Westermark’s sign is a rare finding on chest X-ray representing oligemia of the pulmonary vasculature visualized distal to the site of embolism.
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
Which of the following is true regarding the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE)?
Correct
The pulmonary embolism rule-out criteria (PERC) is a decision rule applied to patients with a low pretest probability (< 15%). If none of the criteria are present, the patient’s pretest probability is decreased to < 2% and further diagnostic testing is not recommended.
Incorrect
The pulmonary embolism rule-out criteria (PERC) is a decision rule applied to patients with a low pretest probability (< 15%). If none of the criteria are present, the patient’s pretest probability is decreased to < 2% and further diagnostic testing is not recommended.
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
A 45-year-old woman with a history of panic disorder and depression presents with palpitations, shortness of breath, diaphoresis and tingling in her fingers for 1 hour. Yesterday, she took an hour car ride. She states that her symptoms feel like her previous panic attacks. She is breathing at a rate of 24 breaths per minute and her heart rate is 102 beats per minute. She has trace pitting edema of the bilateral ankles. She takes conjugated estrogen tablets for post-menopausal symptoms. What is her score using Well’s Clinical Prediction Rule for pulmonary embolism?
Correct
Well’s Clinical Prediction Criteria is a clinical prediction and risk stratification tool used to quantify a patients pre-test probability of pulmonary embolism (PE). The criteria should be applied only after a history and physical suggests that venous thromboembolism is a diagnostic possibility. It should not be applied to all patients with chest pain or dyspnea or to all patients with leg pain or swelling. While there have been modified versions since its first publication in 2000, the original scoring systems involves 7 risk factors. These factors include: (1) Clinical signs and symptoms of deep vein thrombosis (DVT); (2) An alternative diagnosis is less likely than PE; (3) HR > 100; (4) Immobilization at least 3 days or surgery in the previous 4 weeks, previous; (5) Objectively diagnosed PE or DVT; (6) Hemoptysis; and (7) Malignancy with treatment within 6 months or palliative. The patient in the above clinical scenario only has a heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute which constitutes a Well’s score of 1.5. She has no further risk factors according to Well’s Criteria. This risk stratification tool has been validated in several studies since its publication and is widely used for stratifying patients who may need further evaluation for PE with a d-dimer or CT angiogram. It is important to note that Well’s criteria have not been validated for use in pregnant females or patients less than eighteen years of age. The scoring system stratifies patients into low risk (1.3% chance of PE), moderate risk (16.2% chance of PE), and high risk (40.6% risk of PE).
Incorrect
Well’s Clinical Prediction Criteria is a clinical prediction and risk stratification tool used to quantify a patients pre-test probability of pulmonary embolism (PE). The criteria should be applied only after a history and physical suggests that venous thromboembolism is a diagnostic possibility. It should not be applied to all patients with chest pain or dyspnea or to all patients with leg pain or swelling. While there have been modified versions since its first publication in 2000, the original scoring systems involves 7 risk factors. These factors include: (1) Clinical signs and symptoms of deep vein thrombosis (DVT); (2) An alternative diagnosis is less likely than PE; (3) HR > 100; (4) Immobilization at least 3 days or surgery in the previous 4 weeks, previous; (5) Objectively diagnosed PE or DVT; (6) Hemoptysis; and (7) Malignancy with treatment within 6 months or palliative. The patient in the above clinical scenario only has a heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute which constitutes a Well’s score of 1.5. She has no further risk factors according to Well’s Criteria. This risk stratification tool has been validated in several studies since its publication and is widely used for stratifying patients who may need further evaluation for PE with a d-dimer or CT angiogram. It is important to note that Well’s criteria have not been validated for use in pregnant females or patients less than eighteen years of age. The scoring system stratifies patients into low risk (1.3% chance of PE), moderate risk (16.2% chance of PE), and high risk (40.6% risk of PE).
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
A 23-year-old woman with no past medical history presents with chest pain for 2 days. The pain is increased with deep breathing. Vital signs are within normal limits. She takes estrogen-based oral contraceptives for birth control. Examination reveals a well-appearing woman with a normal heart, lung and extremity examination. Which of the following would be indicated in the work-up of pulmonary embolism?
Correct
This patient presents with a low-risk story for pulmonary embolism but one that cannot be ruled out by history and physical alone. Clinicians can determine low, moderate and high risk based on clinical gestalt or using a scoring system like the Wells’ Criteria seen below.
In patients who are low risk either by clinical gestalt or Wells’ criteria, the PERC rule, seen below, can be applied.
Since the patient takes oral contraceptives so she does not meet the PERC rule criteria. However, since she is low risk according to the Wells’ criteria, a d-Dimer should be obtained.
Incorrect
This patient presents with a low-risk story for pulmonary embolism but one that cannot be ruled out by history and physical alone. Clinicians can determine low, moderate and high risk based on clinical gestalt or using a scoring system like the Wells’ Criteria seen below.
In patients who are low risk either by clinical gestalt or Wells’ criteria, the PERC rule, seen below, can be applied.
Since the patient takes oral contraceptives so she does not meet the PERC rule criteria. However, since she is low risk according to the Wells’ criteria, a d-Dimer should be obtained.
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
A 55-year old female with a history of pulmonary hypertension on home oxygen presents to the Emergency Department with 24-hours of worsening shortness of breath. She states that she generally has shortness of breath only with activity, however now she feels shortness of breath at rest. She denies any fever or productive cough. Chest x-ray is shown below. Initial vital signs are: HR 110, RR 24, O2 sat 89% on room air, T 98.6F (37C). What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Correct
The correct answer is pulmonary embolism. CXR shows a Hampton’s hump, suggestive of a large infarction due to pulmonary embolism. Further, patients with pulmonary hypertension are at extremely high risk for PE.
Incorrect
The correct answer is pulmonary embolism. CXR shows a Hampton’s hump, suggestive of a large infarction due to pulmonary embolism. Further, patients with pulmonary hypertension are at extremely high risk for PE.
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
A 64 year old male smoker on home oxygen for COPD presents to the ED complaining of acutely worsening shortness of breath and chest pain. Upon initial exam you notice JVD and decreased breath sounds with hyper-resonance on the right side of his chest. Before chest xray and EKG can be completed the patient acutely decompensates and becomes lethargic and you are unable to feel pulses. What is most appropriate treatment at this time?
Correct
Needle thoracostomy and decompression of the tension pneumothorax is indicated prior to any other interventions. COPD increases the prevalence of spontaneous pneumothoraces secondary to ruptured blebs and deformed lung parenchyma. Intubation may be required for the pulseless arrest described, but the most likely cause of this COPD patient’s sudden decompensation is a spontaneous tension pneumothorax which necessitates release via needle thoracostomy
Incorrect
Needle thoracostomy and decompression of the tension pneumothorax is indicated prior to any other interventions. COPD increases the prevalence of spontaneous pneumothoraces secondary to ruptured blebs and deformed lung parenchyma. Intubation may be required for the pulseless arrest described, but the most likely cause of this COPD patient’s sudden decompensation is a spontaneous tension pneumothorax which necessitates release via needle thoracostomy
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
You are called to evaluate a 28-year-old woman with a sudden onset of dyspnea. She denies any recent illness or trauma, but has a history of Factor V Leiden disease. On exam, the patient appears lethargic, although able to answer questions appropriately. Her right leg appears erythematous, warm to touch, and edematous. Vital signs are BP 87/62, HR 145, Temp 99.1°F (37.3C), RR 32, and O2 saturation of 86% on RA. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next-step in management?
Correct
This clinical scenario demonstrates acute pulmonary embolus. With the history of Factor V Leiden disease, this patient is predisposed to thrombotic events. With the acute onset of dyspnea, the presence of DVT in her right leg, tachypnea, and tachycardia, one must suspect PE. The treatment of PE largely depends on the clinical scenario and how stable the patient is. In this case, the patient has hemodynamic instability with evidence of altered mental status. IV thrombolytics should be given immediately. Plasmophoresis is not an indicated treatment in PE.
Incorrect
This clinical scenario demonstrates acute pulmonary embolus. With the history of Factor V Leiden disease, this patient is predisposed to thrombotic events. With the acute onset of dyspnea, the presence of DVT in her right leg, tachypnea, and tachycardia, one must suspect PE. The treatment of PE largely depends on the clinical scenario and how stable the patient is. In this case, the patient has hemodynamic instability with evidence of altered mental status. IV thrombolytics should be given immediately. Plasmophoresis is not an indicated treatment in PE.
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
A 55-year old female presents to the Emergency Room with 24 hours of chest pain and shortness of breath. The pain is pleuritic and non-radiating. Heart rate is 105, blood pressure is 145/56, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air with a respiratory rate of 22. CTPA reveals a moderate sized right pulmonary embolism. Echocardiogram is grossly normal, and EKG shows sinus tachycardia. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct
The correct answer is admission and heparin infusion. This patient has a pulmonary embolism but no right sided heart strain. Emergent thrombolytic therapy is not indicated, but mortality is significant enough to warrant admission and monitoring. Patients with massive acute pulmonary embolism who have failed thrombolytics or have contraindications to thrombolytics may be considered for embolectomy. However, this patient is hemodynamically stable so embolectomy is not indicated emergently at this time. Thrombolytics are controversial in that limited studies have shown improved hemodynamics but no mortality benefit. That being said, in patients with massive acute pulmonary embolism and persistent and/or worsening hemodynamic instability, many guidelines suggest considering administration of thrombolytics. This patient is stable and so the risk of thrombolytics is too great.
Incorrect
The correct answer is admission and heparin infusion. This patient has a pulmonary embolism but no right sided heart strain. Emergent thrombolytic therapy is not indicated, but mortality is significant enough to warrant admission and monitoring. Patients with massive acute pulmonary embolism who have failed thrombolytics or have contraindications to thrombolytics may be considered for embolectomy. However, this patient is hemodynamically stable so embolectomy is not indicated emergently at this time. Thrombolytics are controversial in that limited studies have shown improved hemodynamics but no mortality benefit. That being said, in patients with massive acute pulmonary embolism and persistent and/or worsening hemodynamic instability, many guidelines suggest considering administration of thrombolytics. This patient is stable and so the risk of thrombolytics is too great.
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
What is the sensitivity of venous duplex ultrasonography for detection of proximal deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the leg?
Correct
The sensitivity of a single scan is 95%. Thus, 5% are missed.
Incorrect
The sensitivity of a single scan is 95%. Thus, 5% are missed.
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
A 29-year-old woman presents with onset of left calf pain and mild swelling during a 24-hour period. She is 26 weeks’ pregnant with no other medical problems and no other symptoms. Her D-dimer level is 845 ng/mL. Lower extremity duplex ultrasonography is negative. Which of the following would be the most appropriate course of action?
Correct
In moderate- to high-risk patients with an elevated D-dimer level, a single ultrasound examination may be insufficient. A repeated study in 2 to 7 days is often sufficient to confirm the diagnosis. The lack of pulmonary symptoms precludes the need for lung and embolus evaluation at this time. During pregnancy, there is a progressive rise in baseline D-dimer concentration; thus, a “normal” value is useful, but an elevated level is of no discriminatory value.
Incorrect
In moderate- to high-risk patients with an elevated D-dimer level, a single ultrasound examination may be insufficient. A repeated study in 2 to 7 days is often sufficient to confirm the diagnosis. The lack of pulmonary symptoms precludes the need for lung and embolus evaluation at this time. During pregnancy, there is a progressive rise in baseline D-dimer concentration; thus, a “normal” value is useful, but an elevated level is of no discriminatory value.
Welcome to the final block of Cardiology. This week will cover all thing valvular and clot related in the ED. This week, we will have we finish strong with a Rooney-Reines FLIP combo! We begin the day with quiz/rapid review, followed by EKG rounds with Dr. Berk, followed by FLIP. This also marks the last FLIP classroom until mid October, lets finish strong team!
The FOAM for this week is a little thin other than our beloved PE. This is a good week for Harwood and Nuss chapters. As always, if you don’t like H&N chapters, please pick one of the sources below for each topic. This is meant to give you options, not to overwhelm.
Online Material:
PULMONARY EMBOLUS
Text
— EBM – Pulmonary Embolism
— R.E.B.E.L. EM – Critical PE Patient
— emDOCs – PE and systemic thrombolytics
DVT
CORE EM – DVT Overview and Management
emDocs – DVT
VALVE DISORDERS
So not hot right now. No FOAM here. Recommend H&N below
ANCILLARY/GUNNER
Podcast
FOAMCast – Risk Stratifying PE
FOAMCast – Anticoagulation!
EMRAP – Syncope and PE (PESIT study)
Text
REBEL EM – review of RCT done on PERC study
REBEL EM – review of anticoagulating first time acute leg DVTs
Text Material
HARWOOD & NUSS
ROSENS
83. Infective Endocarditis and Valvular Heart Disease (CRACKCast)
87. Peripheral Arteriovascular Disease (CRACKCast)
88. Pulmonary Embolism and Deep Vein Thrombosis (CRACKCast)